AIPMT 2008 Examination Paper Solutions |
1. Which two of the following five physical parameters have the same dimensions?
(a) energy density
(b) refractive index
(c) dielectric constant
(d) Young's modulus
(e) magnetic field
(1) (a) and (e)
(2) (b) and (d)
(3) (c) and (e)
(4) (a) and (d)
Sol. Answer (4)
Energy density and Young's modulus have same dimensional formula.
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2. If the error in the measurement of radius of a sphere is 2%, then the error in the determination of volume of the sphere will be
(1) 2%
(2) 4%
(3) 6%
(4) 8%
Sol. Answer (3)
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3. The distance travelled by a particle starting from rest and moving with an acceleration  in the third second is
(1) 
(2) 6 m
(3) 4 m
(4) 
Sol. Answer (4)
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4. A particle moves in a straight line with a constant acceleration. It changes its velocity from 10 ms-1 to 20 ms-1 while passing through a distance 135 m in t second. The value of t is
(1) 9
(2) 10
(3) 1.8
(4) 12
Sol. Answer (1)
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5. A particle shows distance-time curve as given in this figure. The maximum instantaneous velocity of the particle is around the point
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
Sol. Answer (3)
Maximum slope is at C.
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6. A particle of mass m is projected with velocity v making an angle of 45o with the horizontal. When the particle lands on the level ground the magnitude of the change in its momentum will be
(1) zero
(2) 2 mv
(3) 
(4) 
Sol. Answer (4)
Momentum change = 2mv sin
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7. Sand is being dropped on a conveyor belt at the rate of M kg/s. The force necessary to keep the belt moving with a constant velocity of v m/s will be
(1) Zero
(2) Mv newton
(3) 2 Mv newton
(4) 
Sol. Answer (2)
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8. Three forces acting on a body are shown in the figure. To have the resultant force only along the y-direction, the magnitude of the minimum additional force needed is
(1) 
(2) 0.5 N
(3) 1.5 N
(4) 
Sol. Answer (2)
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9. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional forces are 10% of energy. How much power is generated by the turbine? (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 7.0 kW
(2) 8.1 kW
(3) 10.2 kW
(4) 12.3 kW
Sol. Answer (2)
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10. A shell of mass 200 gm is ejected from a gun of mass 4 kg by an explosion that generates 1.05 kJ of energy. The initial velocity of the shell is
(1) 120 ms-1
(2) 100 ms-1
(3) 80 ms-1
(4) 40 ms-1
Sol. Answer (2)
Let the initial velocity of the shell be v, then velocity of gun is  (from conservation of linar moment)
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11. The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc to that of a circular ring, each of same mass and radius, around their respective axes is
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
Sol. Answer (3)
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12. A thin rod of length L and mass M is bent at its midpoint into two halves so that the angle between them is 90o. The moment of inertia of the bent rod about an axis passing through the bending point and perpendicular to the plane defined by the two halves of the rod is
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
Sol. Answer (3)
Distribution of masses about axis of rotation remain unchanged whether it is straight or bend.
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13. A roller coaster is designed such that riders experience ''weightlessness'' as they go round the top of a hill whose radius of curvature is 20 m. The speed of the car at the top of the hill is between
(1) 13 m/s and 14 m/s
(2) 14 m/s and 15 m/s
(3) 15 ms/ and 16 m/s
(4) 16 m/s and 17 m/s
Sol. Answer (2)
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14. If Q, E and W denote respectively the heat added, change in internal energy and the work done in a closed cycle process, then
(1) Q = 0
(2) W = 0
(3) Q = W = 0
(4) E = 0
Sol. Answer (4)
From the 1st law of thermodynamics,
Q = E + W
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15. On a new scale of temperature (which is linear) and called the W scale, the freezing and boiling points of water are 39o W and 239o W respectively. What will be the temperature on the new scale, corresponding to a temperature of 39o C on the Celsius scale?
(1) 139o W
(2) 78o W
(3) 117o W
(4) 200o W
Sol. Answer (3)
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16. At 10oC the value of the density of a fixed mass of an ideal gas divided by its pressure is x. At 110oC this ratio is
(1) 
(2) x
(3) 
(4) 
Sol. Answer (1)
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17. Two Simple Harmonic Motions of angular frequency 100 and 1000 rad s-1 have the same displacement amplitude. The ratio of their maximum accelerations is
(1) 1 : 104
(2) 1 : 10
(3) 1 : 102
(4) 1 : 103
Sol. Answer (3)
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18. The wave described by  where x and y are in meters and t in seconds, is a wave travelling along the
(1) -ve x direction with amplitude 0.25 m and wavelength  = 0.2 m
(2) -ve x direction with frequency 1 Hz
(3) +ve x direction with frequency  Hz and wavelength = 0.2 m
(4) +ve x direction with frequency 1 Hz and wavelength = 0.2 m
Sol. Answer (4)
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19. A point performs simple harmonic oscillation of period T and the equation of motion is given by x = a sin(wt + /6). After the elapse of what fraction of the time period the velocity of the point will be equal to half of its maximum velocity?
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
Sol. Answer (1)
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20. Two points are located at a distance of 10 m and 15 m from the source of oscillation. The period of oscillation is 0.05 sec and the velocity of the wave is 300 m/sec. What is the phase difference between the oscillations of two points?
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4)
Sol. Answer (3)
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21. The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a medium of permittivity  0 and permeability  0 is given by
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
Sol. Answer (4)
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22. Two periodic waves of intensities I1 and I2 pass through a region at the same time in the same direction. The sum of the maximum and minimum intensities is
(1) 2(I1 + I2)
(2) I1 + I2
(3) 
(4) 
Sol. Answer (1)
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23. Two thin lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are in contact and coaxial. The power of the combinations is
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
Sol. Answer (1)
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24. A boy is trying to start a fire by focusing Sunlight on a piece of paper using an equiconvex lens of focal length 10 cm. The diameter of the Sun is 1.39 × 109 m and its mean distance from the earth is 1.5 × 1011 m. What is the diameter of the Sun's image on the paper?
(1) 12.4 × 10-4 m
(2) 9.2 × 10-4 m
(3) 6.5 × 10-4 m
(4) 6.5 × 10-5 m
Sol. Answer (2)
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25. The energy required to charge a parallel plate condenser of plate separation d and plate area of cross-section A such that the uniform electric field between the plates is E, is
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
Sol. Answer (1)
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26. A thin conducting ring of radius R is given a charge +Q. The electric field at the centre O of the ring due to the charge on the part AKB of the ring is E. The electric field at the centre due to the charge on the part ACDB of the ring is
(1) 3 E along OK
(2) 3 E along KO
(3) E along OK
(4) E along KO
Sol. Answer (3)
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27. The electric potential at a point in free space due to a charge Q coulomb is Q × 1011 volts. The electric field at that point is
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
Sol. Answer (2)
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28. A cell can be balanced against 110 cm and 100 cm of potentiometer wire, respectively with and without being short circuited through a resistance of 10 . Its internal resistance is
(1) Zero
(2) 1.0 ohm
(3) 0.5 ohm
(4) 2.0 ohm
Sol. Answer (2)
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29. A wire of a certain material is stretched slowly by ten per cent. It new resistance and specific resistance become respectively
(1) 1.1 times, 1.1 times
(2) 1.2 times, 1.1 times
(3) 1.21 times, same
(4) Both remain the same
Sol. Answer (3)
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30. In the circuit shown, the current through the 4 resistor is 1 amp when the points P and M are connected to a d.c. voltage source. The potential difference between the points M and N is
(1) 3.2 volt
(2) 1.5 volt
(3) 1.0 volt
(4) 0.5 volt
Sol. Answer (1)
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31. An electric kettle takes 4A current at 220 V. How much time will it take to boil 1 kg of water from temperature 20°C? The temperature of boiling water is 100°C.
(1) 4.2 min
(2) 6.3 min
(3) 8.4 min
(4) 12.6 min
Sol. Answer (2)
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32. A current of 3 amp. flows through the 2 resistor shown in the circuit. The power dissipated in the 5 resistor is
(1) 5 watt
(2) 4 watt
(3) 2 watt
(4) 1 watt
Sol. Answer (1)
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33. A particle of mass m, charge Q and kinetic energy T enters a transverse uniform magnetic field of induction  After 3 seconds the kinetic energy of the particle will be
(1) 4 T
(2) 3 T
(3) 2 T
(4) T
Sol. Answer (4)
Work done by magnetic field on charge particle is zero. Therefore its kinetic energy will be same i.e. T
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34. 
A closed loop PQRS carrying a current is placed in a uniform magnetic field. If the magnetic forces on segments PS, SR and RQ are F1, F2 and F3 respectively and are in the plane of the paper and along the directions shown, the force on the segment QP is
(1) F3 - F1 + F2
(2) F3 - F1 - F2
(3) 
(4) 
Sol. Answer (3)
Since net force on current carrying loop in uniform magnetic field is zero therefore force on remaining segment will be equal and oppsoite to F.
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35. A circular disc of radius 0.2 meter is placed in a uniform magnetic field of induction  in such a way that its axis makes an angle of 60° with  The magnetic flux linked with the disc is
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
Sol. Answer (2)
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36. A galvanometer of resistance 50 is connected to a battery of 3 V along with a resistance of 2950 in series. A full scale deflection of 30 divisions is obtained in the galvanometer. In order to reduce this deflection to 20 divisions, the resistance in series should be
(1) 4450
(2) 5050
(3) 5550
(4) 6050
Sol. Answer (1)
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37. Curie temperature is the temperature above which
(1) Ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic material
(2) Ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic material
(3) Paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic material
(4) Paramagnetic material becomes ferromagnetic material
Sol. Answer (2)
Above curie temperature domains break down, hence ferromagnetic substances become paramagnetic.
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38. A long solenoid has 500 turns. When a current of 2 ampere is passed through it, the resulting magnetic flux linked with each turn of the solenoid is 4 × 10-3  b. The self-inductance of the solenoid is
(1) 4.0 henry
(2) 2.5 henry
(3) 2.0 henry
(4) 1.0 henry
Sol. Answer (4)
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39. In an a.c. circuit the e.m.f. (e) and the current (i ) at any instant are given respectively by
The average power in the circuit over one cycle of a.c. is
(1) E0I0
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
Sol. Answer (4)
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40. In the phenomenon of electric discharge through gases at low pressure, the coloured glow in the tube appears as a result of
(1) Collision between different electrons of the atoms of the gas
(2) Excitation of electrons in the atoms
(3) Collision between the atoms of the gas
(4) Collisions between the charged particles emitted from the cathode and the atoms of the gas
Sol. Answer (2)
Due to excitation of electrons in atoms.
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41. The work function of a surface of a photosensitive material is 6.2 eV. The wavelength of the incident radiation for which the stopping potential is 5 V lies in the
(1) X-ray region
(2) Ultraviolet region
(3) Visible region
(4) Infrared region
Sol. Answer (2)
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42. A particle of mass 1 mg has the same wavelength as an electron moving with a velocity of 3 × 106 ms-1. The velocity of the particle is (mass of electron = 9.1 × 10-31 kg)
(1) 2.7 × 10-21 ms-1
(2) 2.7 × 10-18 ms-1
(3) 9 × 10-2 ms-1
(4) 3 × 10-31 ms-1
Sol. Answer (2)
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43. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. When its electron is in the first excited state, its excitation energy is
(1) 0
(2) 3.4 eV
(3) 6.8 eV
(4) 10.2 eV
Sol. Answer (4)
Excitation energy = Ef - Ei
= -3.4 - (-13.6) = 10.2 eV
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44. Two radioactive materials X1 and X2 have decay constants 5 and respectively. If initially they have the same number of nuclei, then the ratio of the number of nuclei of X1 to that of X2 will be  after a time
(1) 
(2)
(3) 
(4) 
Sol. Answer (4)
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45. Two nuclei have their mass numbers in the ratio of 1:3. The ratio of their nuclear densities would be
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 3
(3) 3 : 1
(4) (3)1/3 : 1
Sol. Answer (1)
Density is independent of mass number of nuclei.
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46. If M(A; Z), Mp and Mn denote the masses of the nucleus proton and neutron respectively in units of u (1u = 931.5 MeV / C2) and BE represents its bonding energy in MeV, then
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
Sol. Answer (2)
BE =[ZMp + (A -Z) Mn - M(A, Z)]C2
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47. The voltage gain of an amplifier with 9% negative feedback is 10. The voltage gain without feedback will be
(1) 100
(2) 90
(3) 10
(4) 1.25
Sol. Answer (1)
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48. If the lattice parameter for a crystalline structure is 3.6  , then the atomic radius in fcc crystal is
(1) 1.27
(2) 1.81
(3) 2.10
(4) 2.92
Sol. Answer (1)
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49. The circuit
is equivalent to
(1) OR gate
(2) AND gate
(3) NAND gate
(4) NOR gate
Sol. Answer (4)
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50. A p-n photodiode is made of a material with a band gap of 2.0 eV. The minimum frequency of the radiation that can be absorbed by the material is nearly
(1) 20 × 1014 Hz
(2) 10 × 1014 Hz
(3) 5 × 1014 Hz
(4) 1 × 1014 Hz
Sol. Answer (3)
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51. If uncertainty in position and momentum are equal, then uncertainty in velocity is
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
Sol. Answer (2)
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52. If a gas expands at constant temperature, it indicates that
(1) Number of the molecules of gas increases
(2) Kinetic energy of molecules decreases
(3) Pressure of the gas increases
(4) Kinetic energy of molecules remains the same
Sol. Answer (4)
Kinetic energy of gaseous molecules depends on temperature only.
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53. The value of equilibrium constant of the reaction
The equilibrium constant of the reaction 
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 16
Sol. Answer (3)
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54. If 'a' stands for the edge length of the cubic systems : simple cubic, body centred cubic and face centred cubic, then the ratio of radii of the spheres in these systems will be respectively
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
Sol. Answer (2)
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55. Kohlrausch's law states that at
(1) Infinite dilution, each ion makes definite contribution to equivalent conductance of an electrolyte, whatever be the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte
(2) Finite dilution, each ion makes definite contribution to equivalent conductance of an electrolyte, whatever be the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte
(3) Infinite dilution each ion makes definite contribution to equivalent conductance of an electrolyte depending on the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte
(4) Infinite dilution, each ion makes definite contribution to conductance of an electrolyte whatever be the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte
Sol. Answer (1)
Kohlrausch's law states, ''at infinite dilution each ion contributes its fixed value towards equivalent conductance irrespective of the other ion in combination with it at fixed temperature.''
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56. The measurement of the electron position is associated with an uncertainty in momentum, which is equal to 1 × 10-18 g cm s-1. The uncertainty in electron velocity is, (mass of an electron is 9 × 10-28 g)
(1) 1 × 1011 cm s-1
(2) 1 × 109 cm s-1
(3) 1 × 106 cm s-1
(4) 1 × 105 cm s-1
Sol. Answer (2)
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57. Which of the following are not state functions?
(I) q + w
(II) q
(III) w
(IV) H-TS
(1) (II) and (III)
(2) (I) and (IV)
(3) (II), (III) and (IV)
(4) (I), (II) and (III)
Sol. Answer (1)
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58. The bromination of acetone that occurs in acid solution is represented by this equation
These kinetic data were obtained for given reaction concentrations
Based on these data, the rate equation is
(1) Rate = k[CH3COCH3][Br2][H+]
(2) Rate = k[CH3COCH3][H+]
(3) Rate = k[CH = COCH3][Br2]
(4) Rate = k[CH3COCH3][Br2][H+]2
Sol. Answer (2)
In experiment (1) and (2), rate doesn't depend on the concentration of Br2. So, rate expression will not include [Br2].
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59. What volume of oxygen gas (O2) measured at 0°C and 1 atm, is needed to burn completely 1 L of propane gas (C3H8) measured under the same conditions?
(1) 10 L
(2) 7 L
(3) 6 L
(4) 5 L
Sol. Answer (4)
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60. Bond dissociation enthalpy of H2, Cl2 and HCl are 434, 242 and 431 kJmol-1respectively. Enthalpy of formation of HCl is
(1) 245 kJmol-1
(2) 93 kJmol-1
(3) -245 kJmol-1
(4) -93 kJmol-1
Sol. Answer (4)
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61. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(1) The number of Bravais lattices in which a crystal can be categorized is 14
(2) The fraction of the total volume occupied by the atoms in a primitive cell is 0.48
(3) Molecular solids are generally volatile
(4) The number of carbon atoms in an unit cell of diamond is 4
Sol. Answer (4)
Diamond has ZnS type structure. So, no. of atoms in a unit cell of diamond is 8.
Note : But option (2) is also incorrect because the fraction of the total volume occupied by the atoms in a cubic primitive cells is 0.524.
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62. Equal volumes of three acid solutions of pH 3, 4 and 5 are mixed in a vessel. What will be the H+ ion concentration in the mixture?
(1) 1.11 × 10-3 M
(2) 1.11 × 10-4 M
(3) 3.7 × 10-4 M
(4) 3.7 × 10-3 M
Sol. Answer (3)
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63. The values of Kp1 and Kp2 for the reactions
are in ratio of 9:1. If degree of dissociation of X and A be equal, then total pressure at equilibrium (1) and (2) are in the ratio
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 9
(4) 36 : 1
Sol. Answer (4)
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64. If the concentration of OH- ions in the reaction  times, then equilibrium concentration of Fe3+ will increase by
(1) 4 times
(2) 8 times
(3) 16 times
(4) 64 times
Sol. Answer (4)
To maintain the constant value of Kc, the concentration of Fe3+ ion will increase by 64 times.
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65. For the gas phase reaction,  Which of the following conditions is correct?
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
Sol. Answer (3)
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66. The rate constants k1 and k2 for two different reactions are  respectively. The temperature at which k1 = k2 is
(1) 
(2) 1000 K
(3) 
(4) 2000 K
Sol. Answer (1)
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67. Standard free energies of formation (in kJ/mol) at 298 K are -237.2, -394.4 and -8.2 for H2O (l), CO2 (g) and pentane (g) respectively. The value of Eocell for the pentane-oxygen fuel cell is
(1) 0.0968 V
(2) 1.968 V
(3) 2.0968 V
(4) 1.0968 V
Sol. Answer (4)
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68. The dissociation equilibrium of a gas AB2 can be represented as,  The degree of dissociation is 'x' and is small compared to 1. The expression relating the degree of dissociation (x) with equilibrium constant KP and total pressure P is
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
Sol. Answer (3)
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69. The sequence of ionic mobility in aqueous solution is
(1) Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+
(2) K+ > Na+ > Rb+ > Cs+
(3) Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ > Na+
(4) Rb+ > K+ > Cs+ > Na+
Sol. Answer (3)
More the charge density of ion, more will be the ion-dipole interaction, so more will be hydration of ion and hence less will be the ionic mobility.
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70. Percentage of free space in a body centred cubic unit cell is
(1) 28%
(2) 30%
(3) 32%
(4) 34%
Sol. Answer (3)
32%
In BCC, packing fraction is 68%.
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71. The correct order of decreasing second ionisation enthalpy of Ti (22), V (23), Cr (24) and Mn (25) is
(1) Ti > V > Cr > Mn
(2) Cr > Mn > V > Ti
(3) V > Mn > Cr > Ti
(4) Mn > Cr > Ti > V
Sol. Answer (2)
After removing one electron from chromium, the resulting structure becomes more stable. Hence Cr has higher second ionisation enthalpy.
Thus, the correct order is
Cr > Mn > V > Ti
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72. How many moles of lead (II) chloride will be formed from a reaction between 6.5 g of PbO and 3.2 g of HCl?
(1) 0.029
(2) 0.044
(3) 0.333
(4) 0.011
Sol. Answer (1)
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73. Which of the following complexes exhibits the highest paramagnetic behaviour? Where gly = glycine, en = ethylenediamine and bpy = bipyridyl moities). (At. number Ti = 22, V = 23, Fe = 26, Co = 27)
(1) [Ti(NH3)6]3+
(2) [V (gly)2 (OH)2(NH3)2]+
(3) [Fe(en)(bpy)(NH3)2]2+
(4) [Co(OX)2(OH)2]-
Sol. Answer (4)
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74. Volume occupied by one molecule of water (density = 1 g cm-3) is
(1) 5.5 × 10-23 cm3
(2) 9.0 × 10-23 cm3
(3) 6.023 × 10-23 cm3
(4) 3.0 × 10-23 cm3
Sol. Answer (4)
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75. Number of moles of MnO4- required to oxidize one mole of ferrous oxalate completely in acidic medium will be
(1) 0.2 moles
(2) 0.6 moles
(3) 0.4 moles
(4) 7.5 moles
Sol. Answer (2)
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76. On the basis of the following E° values, the strongest oxidizing agent is
(1) [Fe(CN)6]3-
(2) [Fe(CN)6]4-
(3) Fe2+
(4) Fe3+
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77. The alkali metals from salt-like hydrides by the direct synthesis at elevated temperature. The thermal stability of these hydrides decreases in which of the following orders?
(1) LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CsH
(2) CsH > RbH > KH > NaH > LiH
(3) KH > NaH > LiH > CsH > RbH
(4) NaH > LiH > KH > RbH > CsH
Sol. Answer (1)
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78. Which one of the following arrangements does not give the correct picture of the trends indicated against it?
(1) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 : Electronegativity
(2) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 : Oxidizing power
(3) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 : Electron gain enthalpy
(4) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 : Bond dissociation energy
Sol. Answer (4)
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79. With which one of the following elements silicon should be doped so as to give p-type of semiconductor?
(1) Boron
(2) Germanium
(3) Arsenic
(4) Selenium
Sol. Answer (1)
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80. In which of the following coordination entities the magnitude of  O (CFSE in octahedral field) will be maximum (at. no. Co = 27)?
(1) [Co (C2O4)3]3-
(2) [Co(H2O)6]3+
(3) [Co(NH3)6]3+
(4) [Co(CN)6]3-
Sol. Answer (4)
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81. The angular shape of molecule (O3) consists of
(1) 2 singma and 1 pi bond
(2) 1 sigma and 2 pi bonds
(3) 2 sigma and 2 pi bonds
(4) 1 sigma and 1 pi bond
Sol. Answer (1)
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82. The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following triatomic species is
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
Sol. Answer (3)
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83. Four diatomic species are listed below the different sequences. Which of these presents the correct order of their increasing bond order?
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
Sol. Answer (1)
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84. Equimolar solutions of the following were prepared in water separately. Which one of the solutions will record the highest pH?
(1) CaCl2
(2) SrCl2
(3) BaCl2
(4) MgCl2
Sol. Answer (3)
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85. In the hydrocarbon
The state of hybridization of carbons 1, 3 and 5 are in the following sequence
(1) sp3, sp2, sp
(2) sp2, sp, sp3
(3) sp, sp3, sp2
(4) sp, sp2, sp3
Sol. Answer (3)
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86. Green chemistry means such reactions which
(1) Study the reactions in plants
(2) Produce colour during reactions
(3) Reduce the use and production of hazardous chemicals
(4) Are related to the depletion of ozone layer
Sol. Answer (3)
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87. A strong base an abstract an  -hydrogen from
(1) Alkane
(2) Alkene
(3) Amine
(4) Ketone
Sol. Answer (4)
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88. How many stereoisomers does the molecules have?
CH3CH = CHCH2CHBrCH3
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8
Sol. Answer (2)
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89. The stability of carbanions in the following
is in the order of
(1) a > c > b > d
(2) a > b > c > d
(3) b > c > d > a
(4) d > b > c > a
Sol. Answer (2)
Higher is the electronegativity of atom higher will be stability of carbanion on it. Higher is the s-character, higher will be the electronegativity of atom.
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90. The relative reactivities of acyl compounds towards nucleophilic substitution are in the order of
(1) Acyl chloride > Ester > Acid anhydride > Amide
(2) Acyl chloride > Acid anhydride > Ester > Amide
(3) Ester > Acyl chloride > Amide > Acid anhydride
(4) Acid anhydride > Amide > Ester > Acyl chloride
Sol. Answer (2)
Better is the leaving group higher will be the reactivity of acyl compounds towards nucleophilic acyl substitution. Weaker is the base, better is the leaving group. Weaker bases are derived from stronger acids.
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91. Base strength of
is in the order of
(1) a > b > c
(2) b > a > c
(3) c > b > a
(4) a > c > b
Sol. Answer (1)
Stronger is the conjugate acid weaker will be corresponding conjugate base. Acidity of conjugate acids of given carbanions is 
Thus order of basicity of given carbanions will be 
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92. 
A (predominantly) is
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4)
Sol. Answer (3)
Reaction is electrophilic addition which proceeds through carbocation reaction intermediate which undergo hydride shift.
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93. In DNA, the complimentary bases are
(1) Uracil and adenine; cytosine and guanine
(2) Adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosine
(3) Adenine and thymine; guanine and uracil
(4) Adenine and guanine; thymine and cytosine
Sol. Answer (2)
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94. Which one the following is most reactive towards electrophilic attack?
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
Sol. Answer (4)
Hydroxy group is most activating group among given options, towards electrophilic attack.
95. An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gave C, 38.71% and H, 9.67%. The empirical formula of the compound would be
(1) CH4O
(2) CH3O
(3) CH2O
(4) CHO
Sol. Answer (2)
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96. In a SN2 substitution reaction of the type
Which one of the following has the highest relative rate?
(1) CH3CH2Br
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
Sol. Answer (1)
For SN2 reaction, there should be low steric hinderance for better reactivity.
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97. Acetophenone when reacted with a base, C2H5ONa, yields a stable compound which has the structure?
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
Sol. Answer (2)
It show condensation reaction
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98. In a reaction of aniline a coloured product C was obtained.
The structure of C would be
(1) 
(2) 
(3) 
(4) 
Sol. Answer (1)
Diazotisation followed electrophillic substitution at para position.
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99. Which of the following statements is not true?
(1) Natural rubber is a 1, 4 - polymer of isoprene
(2) In vulcanization, the formation of sulphur bridges between different chains make rubber harder and stronger
(3) Natural rubber has the trans-configuration at every double bond
(4) Buna-S is a copolymer of butadiene and styrene
Sol. Answer (3)
Natural rubber has cis-configuration at each double bond.
Gutta-Percha has trans-configuration of each double bond.
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100. Which one of the following is an amine hormone?
(1) Progesterone
(2) Thyroxine
(3) Oxypurin
(4) Insulin
Sol. Answer (2)
Thyroxine-derived from tyrosine amino acid.
Insulin - Polypeptide.
Progesterone - Steroid hormone.
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101. Select one of the following of important features distinguishing Gnetum from Cycas and Pinus and showing
affinities with angiosperms
(1) Embryo development and apical meristem
(2) Absence of resin duct and leaf venation
(3) Presence of vessel elements and absence of archegonia
(4) Perianth and two integuments
Sol. Answer (3)
Members of order Gnetales possess vessels and show absence of archegonia.
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102. Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methanobacterium exemplify
(1) Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes
(2) Archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones
(3) Archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those found in eukaryoties but whose DNA is negatively supercoiled
(4) Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively supercoiled but which have a cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria
Sol. Answer (3)
Archaebacteria have -ve supercoiled DNA but histones are chemically different in composition from eukaryotes.
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103. Which one of the following is heterosporous?
(1) Equisetum
(2) Dryopteris
(3) Salvinia
(4) Adiantum
Sol. Answer (3)
Others are homosporous pteridophytes.
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104. In which one of the following male and female gametophytes do not have free living independent existence?
(1) Cedrus
(2) Pteris
(3) Funaria
(4) Polytrichum
Sol. Answer (1)
Cedrus is gymnosperm having reduced dependent gametophytes as pollen and endosperm.
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105. Which one of the following groups of three animals each is correctly matched with their one characteristic morphological feature?
| |
Animals |
|
Morphological feature |
| (1) |
Cockroach, Locust, Taenia |
- |
Metameric segmentation |
| (2) |
Liver fluke, Sea anemone, Sea cucumber |
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Bilateral symmetry |
| (3) |
Centipede, Prawn, Sea urchin |
- |
Jointed appendages |
| (4) |
Scorpion, Spider, Cockroach |
- |
Ventral solid central nervous system |
Sol. Answer (4)
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106. Which one of the following phyla is correctly matched with its two general characteristics?
(1) Mollusca - Normally oviparous and development through a trochophore or veligerlarva
(2) Arthropoda - Body divided into head, thorax and abdomen and respiration by tracheae
(3) Chordata - Notochord at some stage and separate anal and urinary openings to the outside
(4) Echinodermata - Pentamerous radial symmetry and mostly internal fertilization
Sol. Answer (1)
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107. Which one of the following in birds, indicates their reptilian ancestry?
(1) Eggs with a calcareous shell
(2) Scales on their hind limbs
(3) Four-chambered heart
(4) Two special chambers crop and gizzard in their digestive tract
Sol. Answer (2)
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108. Ascaris is characterized by
(1) Presence of true coclom and metamerism (metamerisation)
(2) Absence of true coclom but presence of metamerism
(3) Presence of neither true coclom nor metamerism
(4) Presence of true coclom but absence of metamerism
Sol. Answer (3)
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109. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of phylum Annelida?
(1) Ventral nerve cord
(2) Closed circulatory system
(3) Segmentation
(4) Pseudocoelom
Sol. Answer (4)
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110. Cellulose is the major component of cell walls of
(1) Saccharomyces
(2) Pythium
(3) Xanthomonas
(4) Pseudomonas
Sol. Answer (2)
Pythium is a phycomycetes member having cellulosic cell wall.
Xanthomonas and Pseudomonas are Eubacteria having peptidogycan cell wall. Saccharomyces - Chitinous cell wall.
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111. Vacuole in a plant cell
(1) Lacks membrane and contains water and excretory substances
(2) Is membrane-bound and contains storage proteins and lipids
(3) Is membrane-bound and contains water and excretory substances
(4) Lacks membrane and contains air
Sol. Answer (3)
It is having tonoplast as membrane and stores water and excretory substances.
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112. A competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase is
(1) Malate
(2) Malonate
(3) Oxaloacetate
(4) - ketoglutarate
Sol. Answer (2)
Malonate competes with succinate for active sites of succinate dehydrogenase.
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113. Polysome is formed by
(1) Ribosomes attached to each other in a linear arrangement
(2) Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
(3) Many ribosomes attached to a strand of endoplasmic reticulum
(4) A ribosome with several subunits
Sol. Answer (2)
This structure appears during protein synthesis in cytoplasm to translate different parts of a polypeptide.
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114. Carbohydrates are commonly found as starch in plant storage organs. Which of the following five properties of starch (a - e) make it useful as a storage material?
a. Easily translocated
b. Chemical non-reactive
c. Easily digested by animals
d. Osmotically inactive
e. Synthesized during photosynthesis
The useful properties are
(1) Both a & e
(2) Both b & c
(3) Both b & d
(4) a, c & e
Sol. Answer (3)
Starch is nonreducing and water insoluble so is preferred as storage material.
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