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Integral Calculus

shashank's Avatar
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10 Mar 2009 21:05:34 IST
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IIT BOMBAY OLYMPIAD QUESTION INTEGRATION SOLVE THIS !! integral-((pi/2)(0)[log(tanx)])
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IIT BOMBAY OLYMPIAD QUESTION INTEGRATION SOLVE THIS !!integral-((pi/2)(0)[log(tanx)])


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kabi's Avatar

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10 Mar 2009 21:23:52 IST
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I= int ( pi/2 , 0 ) log(tan(x)) dx

I= int (pi/2 , 0) log(cos(x)) dx

Adding above

2I= int (pi/2 , 0) log (1) dx

I= 0

thank u

shashank's Avatar

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11 Mar 2009 00:21:11 IST
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are you sure ???

Coz doesnt definite integral gives area under curve here we have logtanx tanx-->inf. to pi/2 the are i can t think can be zero .

sajal kumar's Avatar

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11 Mar 2009 15:26:05 IST
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definite integral gives area under the curve but doesn't take into account the sign....so the area can come 0 or negative........
Mirka's Avatar

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11 Mar 2009 15:27:58 IST
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yeah ... so probably below the point x = pi/4 where y = 0 ..... area is negative and its magnitude equals d area of d part above d x-axis .....

kabi's Avatar

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11 Mar 2009 20:24:28 IST
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kabi's Avatar

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11 Mar 2009 20:25:51 IST
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so here is graphical solution .Man.
NugoRama's Avatar

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11 Mar 2009 20:52:56 IST
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amazing....

kabi's Avatar

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11 Mar 2009 21:17:07 IST
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its not amazing.ya u can say my calculator is amazing who made it in splits of second.
NugoRama's Avatar

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11 Mar 2009 21:19:32 IST
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not the graph...ur efforts to help ...

NugoRama's Avatar

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11 Mar 2009 21:20:50 IST
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graph toh koi bhi daal sakta hai ....net se ...calculators se ...aur ...etc etc....

 


New kid on the Block

Joined: 14 Mar 2010
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14 Mar 2010 18:39:18 IST
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The Area cannot be zero.

first integrate from 0 to pi/4 and then multiply by 2,not considering the sign.

That is, 0.91596559`*2 = 0.915966,which is the required answer.


New kid on the Block

Joined: 14 Mar 2010
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14 Mar 2010 18:48:20 IST
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A mistake-the result is

1.83193118 :this is equal to twice the CATALAN'S CONSTANT.




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