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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 4 Jan 2008 00:09:45 IST
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Hey karthik for the first one: I have solved it completely and found that the answer given is wrong. For getting answer sa V = 1.7 m/s I think a change has to be made in the question. K = 5mg/L Now try it Karthik you will get the answer. Hope it is useful. Rate if useful. Cheers!!!!! @@@ !!!!!! :)
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 4 Jan 2008 00:15:32 IST
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For the 1st one, I"m getting the distance as
am / (M2 - m2)
Karthik tell me how are u getting the nearby answer..give the equations...
Rate if this is right!!
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 4 Jan 2008 00:18:00 IST
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Hey tell me how u got v=1.7 m/s
Explain it plz
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Hello. The solution for fig. On drawing the daigram join the starting and end points it forms a triangle. Now we know height and base. Let @ be the angle with horizontal. So, Cos@ = L h2 + L2 Frictional Force = (mgCos@)K = Kmg * L h2+L2 = KmgL h2+L2 Work done by Force = (net work done) + W.D against frictional Force. = mgh + KmgL * h2+L2 h2+L2 = mgh + KmgL = mg(h+KL) Hope you find it useful. Rate if useful. Cheers !!!!!! @@ !!!!!!!! 
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 4 Jan 2008 00:19:53 IST
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first one is quite simple...if the mass m goes down by a distance h(which we have to find) then mass M will go up by root(a2+h2)-a....now by conserving energy...Mg( root(a2+h2)-a)=mgh now rearranging and squaring...M2(a2+h2)=m2h2+M2a2+2Mmah or h2(M2-m2)=2Mmah or h= 2Mmah/(M2-m2)
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 4 Jan 2008 00:22:50 IST
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Dude, The first question is wrong. Check ur book again.if K = 5mg/L only then answer comes out to be V = 1.7 m/s Cheers !!!!!!!!!!!! :)
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 4 Jan 2008 00:24:27 IST
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Hey Rohit Thats a rocking answer..Cheers to his brain!!
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 4 Jan 2008 00:25:26 IST
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Its K =5mg/l
See the question again
Now plz provide explanation
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 4 Jan 2008 00:40:40 IST
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Here is the solution: Let "B" move down "x" distance before the string breaks off So "A" will move towards right by "x". At the moment of breaking say spring makes an angle @ with the vertical so the new stretched length will be say "L1" L1 = L2+x2 The change in length will be: dL = L2+x2 - (L) As per law of conservation of energy we have: Loss in PE of B = Gain in KE of B + gain in KE of A + gain in PE of spring Therefore we get: mgx = (1/2)mv2 + (1/2)mv2 + (1/2)(K)(dL)2 On solving above equation and putting K = 5gm/L we get: v2 = gx - (5g/2L) ( L2+x2 - (L) )2 ........ (1) Now if we draw an FBD of A we have: TCos@ = mg ........ (2) And if we draw FBD of B we will have: T = K(dL) .........(3) Equationg (2) and (3) solving we will get: x = 3L/4 Put the value of x = 3L/4 in equation(1) and solve: finally you will get: V2 = 19gL/32 Substitute the values in above expression we get: V = 1.7 m/s Hope it is useful. Rate if useful. Cheers!!!!!!!!@@@!!!!!!!!! 
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 4 Jan 2008 00:51:31 IST
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Solution to Q.4) Let "T" be the tension at the top poitn of the hanging part and let x be the length of the chain inside the tube at any instant. Now we have Equation of motion as: mgh - T = (mh)a ........... (1) m = mass per unit length of the chain. Equation of motion of the horizontal part: T = (mx)a We know: a = dv/dt = (dv/dx)(dx/dt) = v.(dv/dx) T = (mx)v.(dv/dx) .......... (2) Now adding (1) and (2) we get: mgh = mv.(dv/dx)(h+x) (gh/h+x)dx = v.dv Now integrating both sides. gh [0] [L-h] (1/h+x)dx = [0] [v] v.dv On solving above we get: v2/2 = (gh)Loge(h+x) [ limit is from 0 to (L-h) ] v2 = (2gh)Loge(L/h) v = (2gh)Loge(L/h) Hope you find it useful. Rate if useful. Cheers !!!!!! @@@ !!!!!!! 
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 4 Jan 2008 01:14:00 IST
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Hey dude, I have got the answer to your Q.8)Ans:0.09J Change in length due to stretching dL = LSec@ - L = L(Sec@-1) From the figure provided by me Below: TSin@ = uR ...........(1) TCos@ + R = mg R = mg - TCos@ ......(2) Substituting the value of "R" in eq.(2) into eq.(1) we get: Tsin@ = u(mg-TCos@) T = umg (Sin@ + uCos@) If say "K" is spring constant,then T = K(dL) Therefore, K(dL) = umg (Sin@+uCos@) K = umg L(Sec@-1)(Sin@+uCos@) Now, PE of Spring = Work done against friction W = (1/2)K(dL)2 W = umg (L2(Sec@-1)2 2 * L(Sec@-1) * (Sin@ + uCos@) W = umgL (1-Cos@) 2Cos@ * (Sin@ + uCos@) Now given @ = 300,L=0.4m,m=1,u=0.2 Substituting the values we get: W = 0.09Joule Hope you find it useful. Rate if useful. Cheers!!!!!!!@@@@!!!!!!!!!
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 4 Jan 2008 02:53:02 IST
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