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waterdemon's Avatar
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23 Nov 2007 19:13:35 IST
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New Challenge (IIT'92)
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5 Salutes to one who gets it right.

(No Diagram given)

Q)A sledge filled with sand slides down without friction down
a 300 slope.Sand leakes out through a hole in the sledge at
a rate of 2 Kg per second.If the Sledge starts from rest
from the top of inclineand if total initial mass of Sledge is
40 Kg, How long does it take to go down 120 metre in the
plane?

Everyone who gives a good effort will be rated.
Solution will be posted tomorrow by 4.00 pm.

ALL THE BEST.....WISH YOU ALL GOOD LUCK.


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Comments (63)

biki ....'s Avatar

Blazing goIITian

Joined: 5 Jun 2007
Posts: 978
23 Nov 2007 21:28:58 IST
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submit the ways you people are solving by. this will make it better...

it may be wrong but there will be discussion and discussion may yield the answer........

Blazing goIITian

Joined: 29 Sep 2007
Posts: 487
23 Nov 2007 21:33:50 IST
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the way i see it the only way to find the time is to find the mass of the sledge at the second instant.
we could use change in kinetic energy = work done on sledge by thrust force and gravity
but thats what seems difficult
Arshdeep Singh Malhan's Avatar

Blazing goIITian

Joined: 14 Aug 2007
Posts: 910
23 Nov 2007 21:34:25 IST
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i'm getting 6.9 seconds as the answer
siddharth saxena's Avatar

Blazing goIITian

Joined: 2 Mar 2007
Posts: 480
23 Nov 2007 21:36:01 IST
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the problem is dat accleration is not constant.
 
so applying newton's laws is a problem.
 
me trying.
Karthik M's Avatar

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Joined: 1 May 2007
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23 Nov 2007 22:03:49 IST
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acceleration is a constant mate
waterdemon's Avatar

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Joined: 11 Jun 2007
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23 Nov 2007 22:07:46 IST
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Shall I give you all the "solution".

Arshdeep Singh Malhan's Avatar

Blazing goIITian

Joined: 14 Aug 2007
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23 Nov 2007 22:17:22 IST
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yes,i'm not landing anywhere
waterdemon's Avatar

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Joined: 11 Jun 2007
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23 Nov 2007 22:20:53 IST
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I want everyone's opinion.
Shall I Post it ?

Rohan's Avatar

Blazing goIITian

Joined: 3 Jun 2007
Posts: 696
23 Nov 2007 22:25:38 IST
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no don't post the solution !!

post it tommorow evening

Blazing goIITian

Joined: 29 Sep 2007
Posts: 487
23 Nov 2007 22:25:43 IST
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no post tomorrow

Blazing goIITian

Joined: 29 Sep 2007
Posts: 487
23 Nov 2007 22:27:49 IST
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and karthik i don think the acceleration is constant because the thrust force varies with velocity
since mgsin@ is going to accelerate the object the velocity is going to vary and hence the total acceleration
biki ....'s Avatar

Blazing goIITian

Joined: 5 Jun 2007
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23 Nov 2007 22:28:52 IST
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@ waterdemon.......

does the sum require integration....
i think i m getting it
waterdemon's Avatar

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23 Nov 2007 22:30:05 IST
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Yes..............there is integration in one step for sure.
go ahead if you solve it i'll solve it tomorrow.
biki ....'s Avatar

Blazing goIITian

Joined: 5 Jun 2007
Posts: 978
23 Nov 2007 22:31:43 IST
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can i take the velocity constant for a short interval .......
or else waterdemon would not have told to take dt and all...

waterdemon's Avatar

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23 Nov 2007 22:42:55 IST
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Instead of that why don't you try Change in momentum for
a short interval.It will be easier.

Nudge me if not solvable bcoz many of nudged me to post the solution .......i am waiting for you.

But that does not mean that you lose your hope.............
I won't think anything negative about you even if you think
for 7 days for this sum and then say "I did not get it"

Still I am encouraging you all to ive your best shot at this
"BEST OF LUCK EVERYONE"

Cheers!!!!!!!!!!!!!
biki ....'s Avatar

Blazing goIITian

Joined: 5 Jun 2007
Posts: 978
23 Nov 2007 22:52:59 IST
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having got the permission to integrate...... i ended up in this way
the answer comes.........
but i have to consider the velocity to be constant for some small interval of time dt.
 
i realised my previous mistake.... i took accl^n along the plane something other than gsin30
let v be the velocity over time interval t to t+dt.
we have to consider that the time t is that time by which the sledge goes 120m.
let M = mass of the sand box (sledge)
So (M + 40 - 2t)v - [M + 40 - 2(t + dt) ]v = change in momentum = Force x (time interval)
or 2vdt = Fdt
or 2v = F
F = force on the sledge at time t = mass at time t x gsin30
                                               = (40 - 2t) x 5
So 5(40 - 2t) = 2v
or v = (5/2)(40 - 2t)
or dx/dt = (5/2)(40 - 2t)
or dx = (5/2)(40 - 2t)dt
integrating..
dx = 5/2{ 40dt - 2tdt }
x = 5/2{ 40t - t2}
120 = 5/2. (40t - t2)
Now solving gives t = 1.23s and 38.8s
it took me two and a half hours ......... but still an imperfect answer with an impurity of 1.23s appears with 38.8s
biki ....'s Avatar

Blazing goIITian

Joined: 5 Jun 2007
Posts: 978
23 Nov 2007 22:55:25 IST
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thanx waterdemon ....... for the help of advising me on taking that change in momentum........

i tried conserving momentum at first..... but it did not work...

but why 1.23 s appears ???
biki ....'s Avatar

Blazing goIITian

Joined: 5 Jun 2007
Posts: 978
23 Nov 2007 23:04:00 IST
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please friend....... temme why 1.23s appears...why should we reject it...???

today nite.... i'll sleep very well man for my ears turned red doing this sum....
i m feeling very relaxed now.... but make me fell more by telling why 1.23 s WHY WHY WHY....


Blazing goIITian

Joined: 12 Nov 2007
Posts: 577
23 Nov 2007 23:11:19 IST
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@biki

Kyun tension le raha hai bhai. So many times we get junk values. Just reject them and goto sleep . lol
waterdemon's Avatar

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23 Nov 2007 23:14:05 IST
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Amazing answer by Biki !!!!!!!!!!! Congrats !!!!!!!!!!

Now let me show you how I got it.

Solution:

Let initially the mass of the sledge be 'm' and mass of
sand falling per second be say "".
If V be the velocity of the sledge after "T" seconds,then
in a small interval "dT" the Change in Momentum is given by

(m -
T)V - [m-(T+dT)]V = F.dT....(1)

Here F is the force and
F = (m-
T)gSin@                    ....(2)

Substituting the value of "F" from Equation (2) in Eq.(1) &
Solving we wil get the following Expression:

V = (m-T)gSin@

.ds/dT = (m-T)gSin@


Now we integrate the following expression and we get:


.S = (mT - T2/2)gSin@

Substituting the values provded as:
S = 120m.
= 2 kg/sec
m = 40kg.
@ = 300.

2 x 120 = (40T - 2 x T2/2) x 10Sin(30)

240 = (40T - T2)5

48 = 40T - T2
T2 - 40T + 48 = 0

Now solve for T

T = 40 + 1408
          2

T = 38.8sec.

Hope you all find it useful.
Rate if useful.

Biki you got your 5 salutes.Gr8 effort.
Cheers!!!!!!!!!@@@!!!!!!!!!!



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