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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 30 Mar 2008 12:36:36 IST
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done
using cos rule v find tht the length is L/2 w=2V/L look @ fig: so I=mL^2/3 Ke=1/2 * mL^2/3 * 4V^2/l^2 2/3 MV^2
im sure this time
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Nitwit Blubber Odment Tweak
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 30 Mar 2008 12:45:15 IST
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doesn't match with the options given....
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Will nip in at times to solve problems :)
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 30 Mar 2008 12:50:42 IST
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tht aint my fault...find a mistake in it then
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 30 Mar 2008 13:19:51 IST
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The fault aint mine either....
I don't see any faults in the qn btw.
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 30 Mar 2008 20:24:30 IST
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The answer is (5/3)mv2 , or Option D. Consider the fact that the velocity of any point in a system having combined rotational and translational motion is the vector sum of the velocity of the center of mass and wr, where r is the distance of that point from the center of mass and w is the angular velocity. Once the velocity of point A is found with respect to the axes, apply this idea to points A and B. Equations relating V0 , VCM and w are readily obtained. Energy, finally, is the sum of linear and rotational kinetic energies.
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 30 Mar 2008 20:36:52 IST
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buddy - please give a full solution?
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 30 Mar 2008 20:41:23 IST
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karthik bro it wud be great to know how u solved this problem and i still dont get why mine is wrong
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 30 Mar 2008 20:49:52 IST
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buddy, I don't know who is right and who is wrong... so many replies. And I am not sure of what I have done. Looks like Tom is right... waiting for his reply
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 30 Mar 2008 20:52:39 IST
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where did u get this problem from
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 30 Mar 2008 20:53:53 IST
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friend gave it from his JEE workbook
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 30 Mar 2008 21:04:39 IST
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Velocity of point A = Sum of velocity of COM and wL/2, where wL/2 is in a direction perpendicular to the rod and pointing toward positive X axis. Similarly, Velocity of point B = Sum of velocity of COM and wL/2, where wL/2 is in a direction perpendicular to the rod and pointing toward negative X axis. Consider the components of V COM along X and Y (V C,X and V C,Y), and also consider that at this instant, the rod makes an angle pi -  with the X axis. The equations become: For point B: VC,X - w(L/2)sin(theta) = V0 VC,Y = w(L/2)cos(theta) For point A, they become VC,X + w(L/2)sin(theta) = 2V0 VC,Y + w(L/2)cos(theta) = V0sqrt(3) Upon solving these: VC = V0sqrt(3) wL = 2V0 Put these in the energy equation: (1/2)m(V0)2 + (1/2)Iw2
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 30 Mar 2008 21:10:36 IST
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Just to avoid any possible confusion, the direction of wL/2 is really perpendicular to the rod, and it points in the "general" direction of +X for point A, and in the "general" direction of -X for point B
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