| Author |
Message |
![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 8 Mar 2008 15:18:27 IST
|
|
|
Prove that .
|
Guide to latex:
http://www.goiit.com/posts/list/community-shelf-a-guide-to-latex-48056.htm
JEE and OLYMPIA INFINATUM
http://iit-redefined.theforum.name/index.php
|
|
|
|
![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 8 Mar 2008 15:40:26 IST
|
|
|
   ,In maths, the Viète formula, named after Francois Viete, is the following infinite product type representation of the mathematical constant 
1)divide the eqn by 2 and then take its reciprocal... This resultant exp. matches wid exp. of Viete's formula..
The expression on the right hand side has to be understood as a limit expression  where  with initial condition   - and so on till
...
|
MaNuTd RoXxXx..MaNuTd 2 WiN PrEmIeR LeAgUe ThIs SeAsOn ToO AlOnG WiTh ChAmPiOnS LeAgUe.....HaiL RoNaLdO ...HaiL LaMpArD... |
this reply: 0 points
(with 0 
in 0 votes ) [?]
|
|
You have to be logged on to rate
|
|
|
![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 8 Mar 2008 15:57:31 IST
|
|
|
i had no idea abt this but found this on wikipedia, when lampard gave the formula that --
 - (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pi)
thus 2/pi = 1/root 2 * root[1/2 + 1/2 root(1/2)] *...... hence pi =2 / [1/root 2 * root[1/2 + 1/2 root(1/2)] *......
|
Impossible To be Impossible is Impossible |
this reply: 0 points
(with 0 
in 0 votes ) [?]
|
|
You have to be logged on to rate
|
|
|
![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 8 Mar 2008 16:17:12 IST
|
|
|
lampard and anchit, anyone can state results...Can you give me an orginal method?
|
Guide to latex:
http://www.goiit.com/posts/list/community-shelf-a-guide-to-latex-48056.htm
JEE and OLYMPIA INFINATUM
http://iit-redefined.theforum.name/index.php
|
this reply: 0 points
(with 0 
in 0 votes ) [?]
|
|
You have to be logged on to rate
|
|
|
![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 8 Mar 2008 16:36:44 IST
|
|
|
i dont think these standard of ques are ever asked in JEE.....
|
The only place where you will find success before hard work is in the dictionary
A winner never quits.....a quitter never wins......
|
this reply: 2 points
(with 0 
in 1 votes ) [?]
|
|
You have to be logged on to rate
|
|
|
![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 8 Mar 2008 16:50:37 IST
|
|
|
this is well within JEE syllabi and not too difficult either.. I do agree it might not be asked in the upcoming years, but such questions were asked earlier...
|
this reply: 0 points
(with 0 
in 0 votes ) [?]
|
|
You have to be logged on to rate
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
easy !!!!! see the Dr is nothing but cos pi/4 , cos pi/8 , cos pi/16 ............. as we know that cos @/2 = sqrt ( 1/2 + 1/2 cos @ ) and cos pi/4 = 1/sqrt ( 2 ) the rest is cake walk !! Let us denote the product (Dr ) upto m+1 term by Sm and pi/4 = @ so Sm = 2 / cos @ cos @/2 cos @/4 cos @/8 .... cos @/2^m now multiplynig the Dr & Nr by sin @/2^m we get Sm = 4 *@ (2^m/@ )sin @/2^m/ sin 2@ Now letting mtending to infinity and evaluating the limit we get S( reqd ) = 4 * pi/4 *1 = pi
|
this reply: 35 points
(with 7 
in 7 votes ) [?]
|
|
You have to be logged on to rate
|
|
|
![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 10 Mar 2008 14:46:51 IST
|
|
|
nice, feynmann! here is my solution: Since  . Then  .  . or  . For  then Since  . Also,  . We obtain Thereore, 
|
Guide to latex:
http://www.goiit.com/posts/list/community-shelf-a-guide-to-latex-48056.htm
JEE and OLYMPIA INFINATUM
http://iit-redefined.theforum.name/index.php
|
this reply: 30 points
(with 6 
in 6 votes ) [?]
|
|
You have to be logged on to rate
|
|
|
|
|