Let n be natural number and C0 , C 1, C2 , ....., Cn be the binomial coefficients. Then (n + 2) C0 2 n + 1 -(n + 1)C1 2 n + n . C2 2 n- 1 +...... is equal to:
Why option C :( . Are you sure you have typed the power of 2 correctly, I think every power should be increased by 1 to get the required answer.Or simply by symmetry you can guess the answer.
Let us learn to dream, gentlemen, and then perhaps we shall learn the truth.
- August Kekule