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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 7 Oct 2008 20:02:12 IST
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If x,y and z are non-negative reals prove that:

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Time wounds all heels |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 8 Oct 2008 14:02:32 IST
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As, x,y,z are real positive no's.

solving RHS,

multiplying all 3 equn, and taking its square root, we get,

solving LHL,
.......(ii)
similarly,
........(iii)
taking AM greater than equal to GM of (ii) and (iii), we get,

as, LHL & RHL ar both greater than root (xyz)
so we cannot comment on sign between LHL and RHL.................
PLEASE CHECK WEATHER I AM CORRECT OR NOT...................
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AKSHAY KULKARNI |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 8 Oct 2008 14:06:21 IST
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first we don't have to use AM-GM inequality or the sign will be other way around.
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 8 Oct 2008 14:33:59 IST
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@akki: You are absolutely right that nothing can be concluded by this approach .
But do keep trying. Its very instructive
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Time wounds all heels |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 11 Oct 2008 21:54:33 IST
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firstly the power-mean inequality............
L.H.S.<={((x.y1/2+y.z1/2+xz1/2)2+(yx1/2+zy1/2+zx1/2)2)/18}1/2
now we expand the squares...
L.H.S.<=square root of the following expression:
1/8{x2y+y2x+x2z+z2x+y2z+z2y+2xyz} -
1/18{5/4(x2y+y2x+x2z+z2x+y2z+z2y+2xyz) - {2x2(yz)1/2+2xy(yz)1/2+2yz(xy)1/2+2z2(xy)1/2+2xyz}}.
now,square root of 1/8{x2y+y2x+x2z+z2x+y2z+z2y+2xyz} is the reqd. R.H.S.
so all we need to do is to show that
X={5/4(x2y+y2x+x2z+z2x+y2z+z2y+2xyz) - {2x2(yz)1/2+2xy(yz)1/2+2yz(xy)1/2+2z2(xy)1/2+2xyz}>=0.
since 2(yz)1/2<=y+z,and similarly the others , we get
X>=5/4(x2y+y2x+x2z+z2x+y2z+z2y+2xyz) -(x2(y+z)+xy(y+z)+yz(x+y)+z2(x+y) -xyz/2)
=1/4(x2y+y2x+x2z+z2x+y2z+z2y) -3xyz/2.
by simple A.M. G.M. inequality, we see that the last expression>=0.
hence we are done.
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A SMILE IS A CURVE THAT CAN SET A LOT OF THINGS STRAIGHT! |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 12 Oct 2008 08:31:48 IST
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2 AM-GM's will do it.....
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 12 Oct 2008 10:21:34 IST
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nice work ronty. But could I trouble you to latex your solution. It will be easy for others to read it.
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Time wounds all heels |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 12 Oct 2008 10:48:28 IST
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It is very good to see you guys doing these problems. Because frankly, I have only recently begun to learn the subject of inequalities and definitely did not know beyond AM-GM when I attended JEE. This problem was given as part of a tech-fest called Shaastra that just concluded at IIT-Chennai. I had the following solution:
We have by Cauchy Schwarz Inequality:
Again by the application of the same inequality,
Hence, we get

Now, we only have to prove that
Or, squaring both sides,

We can simplify things by exploiting homogeneity and hence letting x+y+z = 1
So that we now have to prove that

Or

But this is obviously true as we have from AM-GM
And since x+y+z = 1, we do have

Hence it follows that

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Time wounds all heels |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 12 Oct 2008 22:19:52 IST
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The answer my friend
Is blowing in the wind. |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 12 Oct 2008 23:18:55 IST
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Re:For the Inequality Enthusiasts - I
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The answer my friend
Is blowing in the wind. |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 13 Oct 2008 09:14:43 IST
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The last part of Jishnu's post answers an extension of this question and was asked in the techfest from where I filched the question.
Good work guys.
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Time wounds all heels |
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