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Algebra

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19 Jul 2009 15:21:55 IST

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if the question has (x^2+1)(x-3)(x+4)>0 then do we put the coefficient x^2 as 1 and move on with th

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if the question has (x^2+1)(x-3)(x+4)>0then do we put the coefficient x^2 as 1 and move on with the rest of the factors or do we call it as no solution?Please Mail Me The Answer On My E-mail ID as i can't waste my time here~!nehaljw.kkd1@yahoo.co.in

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Bipin Dubey

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Joined: 23 Jan 2007

Posts: 7942

19 Jul 2009 20:57:42 IST

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(x²+1)(x-3)(x+4) > 0

Since x² + 1 > 0, it can be divided on both the sides without changing inequality sign

(x-3)(x+4) > 0

Now break the regions in (-infinity, -4) ; (-4,3) U (3,infinity) and analyze the expression

you will find x belongs to (-infinity, -4) U (3,infinity)

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