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Algebra

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13 Feb 2012 15:20:21 IST

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is it a paradox?? or what is the problem

Mathematics

you know that the angle between two parallel lines is zero you can use tan x=(m1-m2_/(1+m1m2)but when the slopes of two parallel lines are i and i. tanx=(i-i)/(1+i*i)i.e 0/0;what is the problem with this please leave your opinions as reply

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sidharthsekharsahoo

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13 Feb 2012 15:31:50 IST

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here tanx is not equal to 0/0 ,look carefully ,it is 0/some real value which is equal to 0

boywholived

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14 Feb 2012 19:03:49 IST

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noo(by i I mean the complex number sqrt(-1)) i-i is zero i.e the numerator is zero and 1+i*i (i*i=-1) ie denominator becomes zero hence tanx =0/0 that is where the problem is

sidharthsekharsahoo

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14 Feb 2012 22:14:00 IST

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oo.. here i is the complex no. , i think that slope cannot be a complex no.

Deevita Agarwal

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15 Feb 2012 20:37:43 IST

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tan x=(m1-m2_/(1+m1m2) This formula is applied when m belongs to real number. So, you cant take it complex. It cannot be.

boywholived

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17 Feb 2012 19:23:53 IST

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the line is in argant plane

boywholived

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17 Feb 2012 19:24:09 IST

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now is it okk to have complex slope

boywholived

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29 Mar 2012 11:43:04 IST

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Any body please reply to the question

Tarun Garg

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30 Mar 2012 20:55:52 IST

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in argand plane slope cant be equal to i since slope in argand plane =imag.part/real part of complex

Tarun Garg

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30 Mar 2012 21:01:29 IST

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also if z₁ ,z₂ ,z₃ ,z ₄ are the points A,B,C,D of line AB and CD then let x be the angle btw. them x=amp(z ₂- z₁ /z₄ - z₃) ........... the lines are parallel then x will be purely real...............

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