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elastiboysai (2327)

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1. Write the following polynomial as a product of irreducible polynomials in Z[X]
f(X) = X^2005 ~ 2005X + 2004.
 
    
elastiboysai (2327)

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ok!
lemme see who can do it.
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sivaramakh (253)

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gr8 gob

<TABLE CELLSPACING="1" CELLPADDING="1" BORDER="0">
<TR><TD>


<DIV ALIGN="right">Glitter Graphics</DIV></TD></TR></TABLE>
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hsbhatt (4465)

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x2005-2005x+2004 = x2005-1 - 2005x+2005 =  x2005-1 - 2005(x-1)
 
This can be factorised as x2005-1 = (x-1) (x2004+x2003+..+x2+x+1)
 
Hence the required factorisation is (x-1) (x2004+x2003+..+x2+x-2004)
 
Now, (x2004+x2003+..+x2+x-2004) becomes zero for x =1 and hence
(x2004+x2003+..+x2+x-2004)  = (x-1) P(x)
 
It remains to prove that (x2004+x2003+..+x2+x-2004) has no more integer zeros.
 
Which is where I am stuck

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elastiboysai (2327)

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edited
sorry
i din read ur post completely,(the 2nd n 3rd last lines)
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hsbhatt (4465)

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I have not written it explicitly, but in my previous post I have reduced the poly given to the form (x-1)2 P(x). Now does P(x) have any further integer roots?

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konichiwa2x (2327)

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yeah..getting only this far .
 
Are you sure it can be reduced further?
 
edit: mistake corrected.

Guide to latex:
http://www.goiit.com/posts/list/community-shelf-a-guide-to-latex-48056.htm

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elastiboysai (2327)

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Guyz,
look at the gn fn
f(-2)<0
f(-1)>0 so ders a root between -2 and -1.
also, f'(x)>0 for all x>1
so the roots of dis must be<=1
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hsbhatt (4465)

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Yeah, but integers exist that are less than 1 too

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