| Author |
Message |
![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 6 Feb 2008 00:39:59 IST
|
|
|
1. Write the following polynomial as a product of irreducible polynomials in Z[X] f(X) = X^2005 ~ 2005X + 2004.
|
|
|
|
![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 6 Feb 2008 00:55:36 IST
|
|
|
ok! lemme see who can do it.
|
this reply: 0 points
(with 0 
in 0 votes ) [?]
|
|
You have to be logged on to rate
|
|
|
![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 6 Feb 2008 06:35:15 IST
|
|
|
gr8 gob
|
<TABLE CELLSPACING="1" CELLPADDING="1" BORDER="0">
<TR><TD>
     
<DIV ALIGN="right">Glitter Graphics</DIV></TD></TR></TABLE>
|
this reply: 0 points
(with 0 
in 0 votes ) [?]
|
|
You have to be logged on to rate
|
|
|
![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 6 Feb 2008 07:16:50 IST
|
|
|
x2005-2005x+2004 = x2005-1 - 2005x+2005 = x2005-1 - 2005(x-1) This can be factorised as x2005-1 = (x-1) (x2004+x2003+..+x2+x+1) Hence the required factorisation is (x-1) (x2004+x2003+..+x2+x-2004) Now, (x2004+x2003+..+x2+x-2004) becomes zero for x =1 and hence (x2004+x2003+..+x2+x-2004) = (x-1) P(x) It remains to prove that (x2004+x2003+..+x2+x-2004) has no more integer zeros. Which is where I am stuck
|
Time wounds all heels |
this reply: 0 points
(with 0 
in 0 votes ) [?]
|
|
You have to be logged on to rate
|
|
|
![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 6 Feb 2008 09:58:11 IST
|
|
|
edited sorry i din read ur post completely,(the 2nd n 3rd last lines)
|
this reply: 0 points
(with 0 
in 0 votes ) [?]
|
|
You have to be logged on to rate
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
I have not written it explicitly, but in my previous post I have reduced the poly given to the form (x-1)2 P(x). Now does P(x) have any further integer roots?
|
Time wounds all heels |
this reply: 0 points
(with 0 
in 0 votes ) [?]
|
|
You have to be logged on to rate
|
|
|
![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 6 Feb 2008 21:32:29 IST
|
|
|
yeah..getting only this far . Are you sure it can be reduced further? edit: mistake corrected.
|
Guide to latex:
http://www.goiit.com/posts/list/community-shelf-a-guide-to-latex-48056.htm
|
this reply: 0 points
(with 0 
in 0 votes ) [?]
|
|
You have to be logged on to rate
|
|
|
![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 6 Feb 2008 22:13:06 IST
|
|
|
Guyz, look at the gn fn f(-2)<0 f(-1)>0 so ders a root between -2 and -1. also, f'(x)>0 for all x>1 so the roots of dis must be<=1
|
this reply: 0 points
(with 0 
in 0 votes ) [?]
|
|
You have to be logged on to rate
|
|
|
![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 6 Feb 2008 22:14:25 IST
|
|
|
Yeah, but integers exist that are less than 1 too
|
Time wounds all heels |
this reply: 0 points
(with 0 
in 0 votes ) [?]
|
|
You have to be logged on to rate
|
|
|
|
|