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Hari Shankar's Avatar
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6 Feb 2008 17:52:27 IST
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If x1, x2, x3, ...,xn are the roots of the polynomial P(x) = xn+xn-1+..+1 then prove that 1/1-x1 + 1/1-x2+...+1/1-xn = n/2.
 
 


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Neeraj Agarwal's Avatar

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6 Feb 2008 21:32:25 IST
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(x-x1)(x-x2)......(x-xn) = x^n+x^(n-1)+......+1

take log...

log(x-x1) + log (x-x2) +.....log(x-xn) = log(x^n+x^(n-1)+...+1)

now differentiate both sides...

1/x-x1 + 1/x-x2 +..+1/x-xn = nx^(n-1)+(n-1)x^(n-2)+...+1 /(x^n+x^(n-1) +...+1)


put x=1...

required value = (1+ 2 +...+n )/ (1+1+....+1) --->n+1 times

so required value = n/2 (using 1+2+....+n = n(n+1)/2)

Hari Shankar's Avatar

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6 Feb 2008 21:37:07 IST
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yup. nice soln by neeraj. but I will wait for other approaches. And for goodness sake pls don't post variations of this same approach (if any). you're gonna get boinked for that!
Neeraj Agarwal's Avatar

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6 Feb 2008 21:41:26 IST
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i think its a common approach...there are some similar questions in complex numbers too....
Hari Shankar's Avatar

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6 Feb 2008 21:44:58 IST
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@Neeraj: I was going to say this when my connection timed out-

The approach is good, only you have pretty confidently taken log on both sides without heed to whether the arguments are +ve or not. And not knowing complex analysis and logs of -ve numbers in complex form.

That is why I am waiting for a watertight approach.

So guys/gals dont lose heart! There still are points for the taking
Neeraj Agarwal's Avatar

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6 Feb 2008 21:46:37 IST
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itni tension lenge to question kaise solve hoga!
Neeraj Agarwal's Avatar

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6 Feb 2008 21:47:23 IST
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anyways....lets see wat others have to say...
Hari Shankar's Avatar

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6 Feb 2008 21:49:08 IST
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nahi neeraj bhai, there are finicky mathematicians who will take you to task for such oversights (our friend Konichiwa has caught me n times being careless). Math = Rigour in arguments.
 That's why I think this business of having JEE in objective format is not a good idea.

Neeraj Agarwal's Avatar

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6 Feb 2008 21:51:34 IST
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objective karte karte aisi cheezon pe dhyaan kam jaata hai....
it has become a habit.......
Rohith B.V's Avatar

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6 Feb 2008 22:18:33 IST
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well majority of us are aiming for iit to become engineers!! not mathematicians.... so mathematical rigour of this degree isnt gonna be needed that much...but i am speaking for the masses....in my opinion  u are VERY right hsbhatt....
Rohith B.V's Avatar

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6 Feb 2008 22:23:37 IST
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and anyway even if both sides are negative ...u will just have to modify and write log|LHS| + ipi/2 = log|RHS| + ipi/2 the ipi/2 terms get cancelled....
Abhijith's Avatar

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7 Feb 2008 09:04:00 IST
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Well this is not a very different method, but anyway...
In general if , are the roots of a polynomial of degree n, then
this is very easy to see: let then
now differentiate with respect to x to get the result. so, for example, if ,
then , and thus
 
ps. you can do this by another method, but its pretty tedious. You can look at the case e.g n=3 or n=4 and then generalize.Clear the denominators, simplify, and group on the left. using that sums of roots, products of pairs of roots, etc are -1,+1, -1 , + 1 etc from coefficients of P(x) combined with P(1) = n+1, you can prove it.
Hari Shankar's Avatar

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7 Feb 2008 09:05:43 IST
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Exactly what I was lookin' for!
 
You can avoid the log business simply by differentiating by parts.
 



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