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little_genius (295)

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if p is a prime no . then prove that logp(P+1) IS AN  IRRATIONAL NO.


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hsbhatt (5020)

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Suppose  \log_p p+1 = \frac{m}{n} where m and n are natural numbers.


Then  p^m = (p+1)^n


This means that p divides (p+1)^n


If a prime number p divides a^m then it divides a.


This means p divides p+1 which is absurd.


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little_genius (295)

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i too had solved it like that except that in the relation p^m = (p+1)^n i used the arguement that p and p+1 being consecutve nos. so one of them is even and the other is odd .. hence there cannot exist natural nos. m ,n bcoz the lhs and rhs will be even and odd respectively or vice versa...

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