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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 Feb 2008 23:09:14 IST
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A coin is tossed 4times. Find the probability that there is no tail in the results.
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 Feb 2008 23:12:51 IST
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in i toss p=1/2 q=1/2 n=4 P=4C0 (p)^4 q^0
ans. is 1/16
if right then rate me
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 Feb 2008 23:14:51 IST
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P (Head)= 1/2 (assuming fair coin)=P(tail)
all we want is a head on all the occassions
the probablity of which is 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/16
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 Feb 2008 23:15:19 IST
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the ans is.... (1/4)^4 = 1/16....
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"Many of the things you can count,dont count....
Many of the things you cant count,really do count...."-Albert Einstein
"The important thing in science is not so much to obtain new facts as to discover new ways of thinking about them"-William Bragg
"An inexplicable fact is infinitely preferable to an incomprehensible mystery"-F. Soddy
RISHIPRATIM MAZUMDAR
NIT DURGAPUR
1ST YEAR,ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATIONS
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 Feb 2008 23:32:11 IST
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and what if: for the same condition find the probability of getting atleast one tail. Plz state the sample space for the condition.
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 Feb 2008 23:33:47 IST
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it is 1- probability of getting no tail so 1- 1/16 = 15/16
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 Feb 2008 23:38:30 IST
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explanation : see in tossing a coin 4 times u could get 0 or 1 or 2 or 3 or all 4 as tails ......1 atleast 1 tail means either 1 or 2 or 3 or 4 that is expecting 0 now since 1 is exhaustive sum of all probabilities is 1 so it is 1- prob of getting no tail
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 Feb 2008 23:39:43 IST
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ooopsie....stupid slip.... it shud hav been (1/2)^4.... sorry 4 the mstk.....
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"Many of the things you can count,dont count....
Many of the things you cant count,really do count...."-Albert Einstein
"The important thing in science is not so much to obtain new facts as to discover new ways of thinking about them"-William Bragg
"An inexplicable fact is infinitely preferable to an incomprehensible mystery"-F. Soddy
RISHIPRATIM MAZUMDAR
NIT DURGAPUR
1ST YEAR,ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATIONS
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 Feb 2008 23:42:25 IST
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P(getting atleast one tail)=l-P(getting no tail)
so 1-1/16(fromm my prev reply) 15/16
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 Feb 2008 23:44:51 IST
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yes rishi i understood the slip. I gave u a 2 pointer/
Thanx evry1 else too.
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 Feb 2008 23:47:50 IST
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using the laws of probability the no. of ways in which tail occurs in all the results is same as getting all heads no. of ways of getting all heads = (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2) = 1/16
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 Feb 2008 23:52:37 IST
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for the second part u have mentioned : sample space = 2C1*2C1*2C1*2C1 = 2*2*2*2 = 16
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