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Algebra

Cool goIITian

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13 Jun 2009 18:57:20 IST

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prove that 1\0 is not defined

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prove that 1\0 is not defined

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KAPIL CVS

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13 Jun 2009 19:23:11 IST

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let us prove this by an example:

we know . which means 6 multiplied by 5 is 30. or 6 added 5 times gives 30.

but in case of , there is no number which when multiplied by 0, gives 1 or 0 added that many times gives 1.

this is my thinking. more responses also invited.

AnshikaRathee

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13 Jun 2009 19:30:40 IST

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theres no proof...wat kapil said is an explanation...and it is acceptebly said that division by zero is undefined or (no.) / 0 =indeterminate high level like zero vector...but it is usually said its direction is ineterminate

NugoRama

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13 Jun 2009 19:30:44 IST

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simple ..consider zero as an infintesimal unit ...means 0.0000000000000000000000000000000000000000001 ...ya ..this much small will do ......now 1/ this number is something GREAT ...something BIG .....now take another number ..with twice as many zeroes as the previosu one ..do the same ...now take another one ...and so on ....ull feel the greatness of infinity automatically ....then ull say ..." sigh, infinity is not defined ."

NugoRama

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13 Jun 2009 19:32:53 IST

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anothe point ......division by zero isnt defined too ....cos we dont know that the very small number above is positive or negative ....the answer then wud fluctuate between infinity and minus infinity .....random values = nothing defined.....hence proved...

gokusuper

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13 Jun 2009 19:34:02 IST

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hi see

1/0.1 = 10

1/0.01 =100

1/0.001=1000........

1/0.000000000000000000001 =100000000000000000000

1/0.000000000000000000000000000000000000000000 =1000000000000000000000000000000000000000000

so 1/0.0000000000000000 gives a bigggggggggg number..!!

NugoRama

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13 Jun 2009 19:34:17 IST

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@ author ...waise tum log baal kii khaal nikalna nahi chodoge ...

KAPIL CVS

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13 Jun 2009 19:34:26 IST

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hey nugo, whatever infinitesimal unit u may take, but always it will tend to zero, but will not be equal to zero.

he has asked for 1/0.

NugoRama

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13 Jun 2009 19:36:30 IST

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tyes kapil ..that just impifies the point ...if we really take "some" values ..be them small ...we wud never get infinity ...though we wud get high and big values ..but never infinity .........at exactly zero ..we will get infinitely large number...a number which is not defined.

NugoRama

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13 Jun 2009 19:37:47 IST

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tyes kapil ..that just impifies the point ...if we really take "some" values ..be them small ...we wud never get infinity ...though we wud get high and big values ..but never infinity .........at exactly zero ..we get an infinitely large number..a number which is not defined.

Dasvidaniya

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13 Jun 2009 19:37:49 IST

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1/0 is undefined bc anything divided by 0 is undefinedwhat is up with ur additional details1/0 times 0 does not equal zero, i don't know where ur getting that fromanything times 0 is 0if u use the definition of a number having a reciprocal if the number times the reciprocal is 1, then u just proved that 0 does not have a reciprocal bc nothing times 0 is 1anything divided by 0 IS undefined

AnshikaRathee

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13 Jun 2009 19:42:26 IST

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simple : aise qstns ka entrance exam mein koi use nahi hai so leave it !! concentrate on tactics used 4 solving probs and do mind boggling qstns

KAPIL CVS

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13 Jun 2009 19:44:44 IST

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hey, what i say, is when a number follows the rule of divibility, then it must also rule of multiplication. all the least, divisibility is the inverse of multipliocation.

that's why in my earlier post said that -------- in case of , there is no number which when multiplied by 0, gives 1 or 0 added that many times gives 1.

Abhinav Jain

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13 Jun 2009 20:04:23 IST

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se as nuro said 1 upon any infinitesimal thing would be just like a very large quantity upon a very small quantity that is y 1/0 is considered to be infinty which can't be determinde

........vIShU ...... .......

Hot goIITian

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13 Jun 2009 20:21:23 IST

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heyyy guys and gals the right ans is right here and right noww

see , 1/0 is basically related by function ... like

1 divide 0

so accoring to

so there ..... only there is only 1 answer is possible...

but we r getting many so it is not a func.

so it is undif

i think i m correct>>>>>////

manisha

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13 Jun 2009 20:22:02 IST

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Let us prove it by contradiction.Let p & q be two real nos such that p is not equal to q &1/0 be defined Now, p*0=q*0 (both sides equal to zero) =>(p*1)/0=(q*1)/0 =>p=q (cancelling 1/0 from both sides)which is not true as we took p not equal to q.hence 1/0 is not defined & similarly we can prove 0/0 is not defined too.

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