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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 6 Jul 2008 12:28:14 IST
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the solution of the equation1!+2!+3!+.....x!=k^2 where k belongs to I are
(A) 1,3 (B) 2,3
(C) 4,5 (D) -1,-3
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 6 Jul 2008 12:30:50 IST
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Answer is 1 and 3
1!+2!+3!=9 which is a perfect square of 3 hence we get k = 3
1!=1 hence we get k = 1
so solution is k = 1,3
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"Before you start some work, always ask yourself three questions - Why am I doing it, What the results might be and Will I be successful. Only when you think deeply and find satisfactory answers to these questions, go ahead."
Chanakya quotes (Indian politician, strategist and writer, 350 BC-275 BC) |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 6 Jul 2008 12:38:24 IST
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Further Discussion: Do any solutions exist other than these?
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Time wounds all heels |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 6 Jul 2008 12:51:54 IST
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Sir there cannot be further any solution of this type of function because
1! + 2! + 3! +4! = 1 + 2 + 6 + 24 = 33 gives us end digit as 3 and further factorials have end digit as 0
5! = 120 , 6! = 720 ....
so if we keep on adding further factorials we will surely have digit at units place as 3
now there is no number whose square has end digit as 3 so we cannot have any more numbers other than 1 and 3
Tell me if i m wrong.
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"Before you start some work, always ask yourself three questions - Why am I doing it, What the results might be and Will I be successful. Only when you think deeply and find satisfactory answers to these questions, go ahead."
Chanakya quotes (Indian politician, strategist and writer, 350 BC-275 BC) |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 6 Jul 2008 13:20:11 IST
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yes, that's correct
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Time wounds all heels |
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