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Algebra
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10 Jan 2009 09:13:44 IST
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Ok, I think i will post my solution to this. Actually, the first time i saw this on mathlinks, i glibly gave the same proof as pink_ele and by the time i realized my mistake it was too late (in other words, more than 24 hours later
)
But let us assume the contrary i.e. 
Then, by Cauchy Schwarz,

which contradicts AM-GM inequality that 












(a-b)^2+(b-c)^2+(a-c)^2>=0
let
a=x/y
b=y/z
c=z/x
from dis we get
2{(x/y)^2+(y/z)^2+(z/x)^2-x/z-y/x-z/y)>=0
dis gives
x/y)^2+(y/z)^2+(z/x)^2>=x/z+y/x+z/y
proved