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Algebra

STONE COLD RATTLESNAKE's Avatar
Blazing goIITian

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8 Oct 2008 20:53:34 IST
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To prove 1=2 PF: 1^1 =1 (eqaution 1) 1^2=1 (quation 2) From equation 1 & 2 1^1=1^2
None

To prove 1=2
PF:
1^1 =1 (eqaution 1)
1^2=1 (quation 2)
From equation 1 & 2
1^1=1^2


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STONE COLD RATTLESNAKE's Avatar

Blazing goIITian

Joined: 15 Jul 2008
Posts: 315
8 Oct 2008 20:54:02 IST
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1^1 =1 (eqaution 1)
1^2=1 (quation 2)
From equation 1 & 2
1^1=1^2
Now bases are equal.( properties of exponents)
Therefore powers have to be equal
Thus 1=2

Blazing goIITian

Joined: 1 Jul 2007
Posts: 301
8 Oct 2008 20:56:03 IST
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by this method ,you can prove any real no. is equal to any other no...

STONE COLD RATTLESNAKE's Avatar

Blazing goIITian

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Posts: 315
8 Oct 2008 20:58:00 IST
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Yes this mathematically flawless yet logically absurd.
STONE COLD RATTLESNAKE's Avatar

Blazing goIITian

Joined: 15 Jul 2008
Posts: 315
8 Oct 2008 20:58:30 IST
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Rate me for my innovative method......
Nadeem's Avatar

Blazing goIITian

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13 Oct 2008 11:27:09 IST
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What do you mean mathematically flawless??

Vivek  Roy's Avatar

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Joined: 20 May 2008
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13 Oct 2008 12:07:20 IST
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You have no knowledge in mathematics............ The conclusion you have reached is absurd ........ it is only true for prime numbers...... and 1 IS NOT A PRIME NUMBER
Tiger on prowl.......'s Avatar

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13 Oct 2008 13:18:56 IST
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in first place,exponent function is defined for bases greater than zero and not equal to one
NugoRama's Avatar

Blazing goIITian

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8 Jul 2009 23:14:46 IST
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 @ above all..

Firstly ..it is not only for prime numbers..

check this out : 4^3 = 4^x ..x =3 ..4 is not prime.

secondly ..the number "1" is neither prime nor composite.

NugoRama's Avatar

Blazing goIITian

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8 Jul 2009 23:25:49 IST
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And for the flaw...

well here it goes..

let a > 0

a^b = a^c

taking log on both the sides :

b.log(a) = c.log(a)

b=c ..only when we can cancel out log(a)..

and we know we cant cancl out zeroes...

hence..log(a) must not equal 0

hence..a must not be 1.

the end. 




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