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Algebra

Mirka's Avatar
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9 Nov 2008 16:29:16 IST
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Today's RMO Question --
None

 



 



 


Suppose 'a' and 'b' are real numbers


 


such that the roots of the cubic equation


 


ax3 - x2 + bx - 1 = 0


 


are all positive real numbers.


 


 






 


 



Prove that  (i)  0 < 3ab  <= 1






 


 



                   (ii)  b  >= root(3)


 



 





pls note that <= and >= stand 4 less than/ equal to and gr8er than/ equal to respectively..


 


 


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Mirka's Avatar

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9 Nov 2008 16:32:23 IST
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sorry 4 d wide spacing....



this sum i took roots as alpha, beta and gamma



and proved that a and b > o



then tried to use



A.M >= G.M >= H.M



but got stuck with the rearranging of terms...





Can anybody solve this??



 

santhosh in NUS's Avatar

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9 Nov 2008 18:06:51 IST
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Re:Today's RMO Question --
santhosh in NUS's Avatar

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9 Nov 2008 18:09:16 IST
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Re:Today's RMO Question --
Ashutosh Sharma's Avatar

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9 Nov 2008 18:16:54 IST
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Using the AM-GM Relations, and


All are positive, so dividing.


 


As fer the first part, using AM-GM, we wud get and from the above inequality,


Dividing, Hence, ......And as roots are +ve, sum n product nd sum taken 2 at a time r +ve i.e. a,b are +ve. Hence ab>03ab>o


So,

Rahul  Duggal's Avatar

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9 Nov 2008 18:51:09 IST
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Re:Today's RMO Question --
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9 Nov 2008 19:05:39 IST
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this ques i have solved by algebra as well as calculus...easiest of the lot..after the first one..wic was a bit easier than this...

look..

by a.m-g.m 1/a more than 3root3...

by am -hm .. b more than 9 / 3root3..

so b more than root3...

actually my shift key isn't working..

Blazing goIITian

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9 Nov 2008 20:21:56 IST
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 let the positive real roots be :  


so we get : 

 

 

 

now 3ab=3\frac{pq+qr+pr}{(p+q+r)^{2}} 

now this is obviously greater than 0. 

now we write pq+qr+rp=\frac{1}{2}((p+q+r)^{2}-(p^{2}+q^{2}+r^{2})) 

this implies 3ab=\frac{3}{2}\left(1-\frac{(p^{2}+q^{2}+r^{2})}{(p+q+r)^{2}}\right) 

now apply power-mean to get 3ab \leq \frac{3}{2}\left(1-\frac{1}{3}\right) 

this gives us the required inequality : 

 

sending the second part in a while


Blazing goIITian

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9 Nov 2008 20:44:28 IST
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 now the second part is even easier : 

now carrying on from above we see that b=\frac{1}{p}+\frac{1}{q}+\frac{1}{r} 

but as  

so we get \frac{1}{pq}+\frac{1}{qr}+\frac{1}{pr}=1 

now from cauchy schawrz we get : 

\left(\frac{1}{p^{2}}+\frac{1}{q^{2}}+\frac{1}{r^{2}}\right)^{2} \geq 1 

so : 

b^{2}-2\left(\frac{1}{pq}+\frac{1}{qr}+\frac{1}{pr}\right) \geq 1 

 

now as b is positive so we can safely right :  

rate if useful!Idea

Dipanjan's Avatar

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9 Nov 2008 20:59:51 IST
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The first part I have done exactly as rajat has done. My solution to the second part is as follows.

see that b=\frac{pq+qr+rp}{p+q+r}=\frac{pq+qr+rp}{pqr}

so,b^2=\frac{(pq+qr+rp)^2}{pqr(p+q+r)}

or,b^2=\frac{(pq+qr+rp)\left(\frac{1}{p}+\frac{1}{q}+\frac{1}{r}\right)}{(p+q+r)}

=\frac{2(p+q+r)+\frac{pq}{r}+\frac{qr}{p}+\frac{rp}{q}}{p+q+r}

=2+\frac{\frac{pq}{r}+\frac{qr}{p}+\frac{rp}{q}}{p+q+r}



if we assume

then

and \frac{1}{r}\ge \frac{1}{q}\ge \frac{1}{p}

By Chebychev's ineq.:

\frac{\frac{pq}{r}+\frac{qr}{p}+\frac{rp}{q}}{3}\ge\frac{(pq+qr+rp)}{3}.\frac{\left(\frac{1}{r}+ \frac{1}{q}+ \frac{1}{p}\right)}{3}

or,\frac{\frac{pq}{r}+\frac{qr}{p}+\frac{rp}{q}}{p+q+r}\ge\frac{(pq+qr+rp)}{p+q+r}.\frac{\frac{1}{r}+ \frac{1}{q}+ \frac{1}{p}}{3}=\frac{1}{3}b^2

or,

or,

Ady JEE-09 AIR 294's Avatar

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9 Nov 2008 21:08:07 IST
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differentiate the given equation u get 3ax^2 - 2x + b = 0





as the roots of the cubic are all positive, so will the roots of its derivative be positive as the roots of the derivative lie between the roots of the original cubic





af(k)>0 for k to lie outside the roots





3a(b)>0





as k = 0





hence we have 3ab>0




now D>=0





4 - 4X3ab>=0





giving 3ab<=1





still working on the 2nd part for a shorter solution





rate if correct

Rahul  Duggal's Avatar

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9 Nov 2008 22:04:49 IST
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I am not sure of my solution. Please correct me if I am wrong.




 


 




 


 

Ady JEE-09 AIR 294's Avatar

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9 Nov 2008 22:30:33 IST
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i suppose am>=gm is the only way to get b>=root(3)

Hari Shankar's Avatar

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12 Nov 2008 09:18:11 IST
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From the relations given you get b = \frac{pq+pr+qr}{pqr} = \frac{1}{p}+\frac{1}{q}+\frac{1}{r}


Also, \frac{1}{pq}+\frac{1}{qr}+\frac{1}{rp} = 1


So, we are required to prove that \left(\frac{1}{p} + \frac{1}{q} +\frac{1}{r} \right)^2 \ge 3\left( \frac{1}{pq}+\frac{1}{qr}+\frac{1}{rp} \right)


which is analogous to the well known inequality (a+b+c)^2 \ge 3(ab+bc+ca)




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