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sandeepramesh (1247)

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Let p > 3 be an odd prime . Show that the numerator of \sum_{k = 1}^{p - 1} \frac {1}{k} is divisible by p^2 Smile
    
computer001 (1847)

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wth do u mean by numerator is divisible by p^2??
i can jus multiply n devide the whole thing by p^2...
so numerator now will be x(p^2) hence it is divisible by p^2..
il also multiply n devide values so tht x is an integer.. then numerator  will b div by p^2 no??

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sandeepramesh (1247)

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i mean in the simplest form of the sum as a fraction da :)
 
as usual simply asking doubts :D :D
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computer001 (1847)

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EDITED:
oops..i made a horrible mistake

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computer001 (1847)

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EDITED

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sandeepramesh (1247)

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What? Mind posting the soln?
 
Dei u cant find sum of n terms of a HP
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anandghegde (1707)

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computer 001 i think your harmonic mean is wrong....

\frac{1}{H} = \frac{\frac{1}{1} +\frac{1}{2}+...+\frac{1}{p-1}}{p-1}

"I a universe of atoms.......an atom in the universe"
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computer001 (1847)

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no..no i made a mistake in wat i was inverting !
EDITED..
@ mad: yeah thts obvious..i initially got 2 tht but then i made a mistake in the h.p itself..which ob caused me a few moments of hyper-smelling

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elastiboysai (2327)

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sum of p odd nos is p^2.
seper the thing int o fractions wid even n odd denoms.
in the odd thing num will contain p-1 odd nos p-1 times
in even thing take 2 out common u ll get p-1/2 odd nos n again even nos p-1/2. keep writin in terms of odd nos. (may sound long) bt once u get a genl sequence keep doin dis n ull get fract in wich
num will contain odd nos only till p.
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sandeepramesh (1247)

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a soln rather than a hint will be apt for this sum :D bcos its a good one n not so obvious :)
 
elasti, how can yuo be soo sure that there will be no cancellations between the nr n denominator?
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konichiwa2x (2327)

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edited. check my post below for a better explanation.

Guide to latex:
http://www.goiit.com/posts/list/community-shelf-a-guide-to-latex-48056.htm

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sandeepramesh (1247)

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Can you be more clear abt the start? And does already p divide B? What B have you set up?
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Decoder (333)

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my steps same till sum{ k^-2}....uske baad i culdn't get further..
can u explain wat u did kon!
 

Diamonds r formed under greatest pressures..
so r the champs.


Kriteesh..


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konichiwa2x (2327)

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This question is an application of wolstenholem'es theorem. Let  we want to prove that divides we have .
Ttherefore:
So we need to prove that divides
By Wilson's theorem,

now since , it's in the form In either case will divide thus divides and we're done!

Guide to latex:
http://www.goiit.com/posts/list/community-shelf-a-guide-to-latex-48056.htm

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sandeepramesh (1247)

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nice :)