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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 30 Jun 2008 14:28:41 IST
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if a^2-b^2 is prime then prove that a^2-b^2=a+b if a and b are +ve integers.
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 30 Jun 2008 14:39:52 IST
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arre yaar...a2-b2=(a+b)(a-b) so (a+b) and (a-b) are two factors.....for a prime number the factor shud be either itself or 1
we cannot have (a+b)=1 as a and b are positive integers...
so we can have a-b=1
multiplying both sides by (a+b) we have (a2-b2) =(a+b)
hence the problem....
and btw vatika i guess u got a so called "AIR 21"...na.....so go ahead and tell us wat branch u got....cmon'...
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"Logic is the systematic way of reaching the wrong conclusion with confidence" lol..... |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 30 Jun 2008 14:39:56 IST
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a^2-b^2 can be written as (a+b)(a-b)
since a^2-b^2 is prime ..either (a+b) or (a-b) will be equal to 1..that too must be noted that the other one should be prime as well ...(bcos a and b are +ve integers)
hence two pts are clear...
1. one among (a+b) or (a-b) is equal to 1.
2. the other is prime...
Now...a and b are +ve integers...only (a-b) can be equalled to 1 ..and not (a+b)..
This does it ...
a^2 -b^2 =(a-b)(a+b)
=(1)(a+b)
=(a+b)
nice question ...!!
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