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  Review : Fermat's Last Theorem   8 Nickels awarded!
Tagged with:    [Post New]posted on 10 Jun 2007 17:07:49 IST    
Fermat's Last Theorem: A Genetic Introduction to Algebraic Number Theory.

Theorem: if x,y,z,n are integers and n is a regular prime, then xn + yn = zn ? xyz = 0.

Proof:

(1) From the given, we know that n is a regular prime.

(2) We can assume that x,y,z are relatively prime.
 
(3) Let ? = n. [We use ? to represent n ]

(4) Let ? be a primitive root of unity such that ?i ? 1 when i is less than ? and ?? = 1

(5) Then, using ?, we can refactor xn + yn to get:

z? = x? + y? = (x + y)(x + ?y)(x + ?2y)*...*(x + ??-1y).

(6) We can assume that all elements (x + ?iy) in step #4 are either relatively prime or have only ? - 1 as a common factor since:

(a) Assume that there exists some prime p that divides both x + ?iy and x + ?i+ky.

(b) Now, we note that:


(x + ?
i+ky) - (x + ?iy) = ?i+ky - ?iy = ?i(?k - 1)y

(x + ?i+ky) - ?k(x + ?iy) = x - ?kx = (?k - 1)*(-1)*x

(c) So, if p divides x + ?iy and x + ?i+ky, then p divides both ?i(?k - 1)y and (?k - 1)*(-1)*x

This is true since if a factor a divides b and c, then a divides (b - c) and a also divides (b-dc).

(d) Now, we note that ?i is a unit since ?i * ??-i = 1 and since -1 is a unit.

This gives us that p divides (?k - 1)y and (?k - 1)*x [Since only a unit divides a unit,]
(e) Now, we know that p cannot divide both x,y (since x,y are relatively prime) so p must divide ?k - 1 which means that p = ? - 1.

(7) If ? - 1 divides any of the element of the form (x + ?iy), then it divides all the other factors of this form since:

(a) if (? - 1) divides (x + ?iy), then (?-1) divides (x + ?i+1y) since:

(x + ?i+1y) - (x + ?iy) = ?i+1y - ?iy = ?i(? - 1)y.

In other words, if a factor a divides c and d and b + c = d, then a must divide b.

(b) if (? - 1) divides (x + ?iy), then (?-1) divides (x + ?i-1y) since:

(x + ?iy) - (x + ?i-1y) = ?i-1(? - 1)y.

(8) Since there are ? - 1 factors of the form (x + ?iy), then (? - 1)?-1 = ?*unit  gives us that ? divides z? which using Euclid's Generalized Lemma  gives us that ? divides z.

(9) Even if ? divides x or y, we can assume that it divides z.

(a) Let's assume that ? divide x. [if ? divides y, we can use the same argument substituting y for x]

(b) Since ? is odd, we know that -(-x)? = x? and -(-z)? = z?.

(c) This gives us:

(-x)? = y? + (-z)?

(d) Then, if we label (-x)? as z' and (-z)? as x', then we have shown that if ? divides x,y,or z, we can assume an equation of the form z'? = x'? + y? where ? divides z'?

(e) Finally, if ? divides z?, then by
Euclid's Generalized Lemma, it divides z.

(10) Step #9 is useful because it means that we only have to consider two cases:

Case I: x,y,z,? are coprime and therefore each factor (a+xjy) are relatively prime to each other.

Case II: ? divides z.

(11) We can now conclude that Fermat's Last Theorem holds for regular primes since:

(a) Fermat's Last Theorem holds for Case I.
(b) Fermat's Last Theorem holds for Case II.
 
Generalized Euclid's Lemma

The idea here is that if a prime divides a product of n elements, then it is necessarily divides at least one of those elements.

(1) Let's assume that we have a product of n elements.
a = a1 * a2 * ... * an
(2) We can take any one of these elements and get:
a = a1 * (a2 * ... * an)
(3)So, by Euclid's Lemma, the prime either divides a1 or one of the rest of the elements.
4) So, either it divides a1 or a2 etc.
(5) And we get to the last two elements, we are done by Euclid's Lemma.
 
 

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pirate1_from_jee (596)

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titun
titun is offline comment by titun    (posted on 10 Jun 2007 18:16:53 IST)
Gud work !!!!
dpgol88
dpgol88 is offline comment by dpgol88    (posted on 10 Jun 2007 21:09:43 IST)
How come u proved the fermat's last theorem?
It's prove can't be so easy yaar.
No body was able to prove it between 1697-1997!
dpgol88
dpgol88 is offline comment by dpgol88    (posted on 10 Jun 2007 21:10:03 IST)
I mean it was unproved for 300 years!
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