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Community Contributions - Articles by goIITians
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| Review : Fermat's Last Theorem |
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Tagged with:
academic
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posted on 10 Jun 2007 17:07:49 IST
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(2) We can assume that x,y,z are relatively prime. (3) Let ? = n. [We use ? to represent n ] (4) Let ? be a primitive root of unity such that ?i ? 1 when i is less than ? and ?? = 1 (5) Then, using ?, we can refactor xn + yn to get:
z? = x? + y? = (x + y)(x + ?y)(x + ?2y)*...*(x + ??-1y). (6) We can assume that all elements (x + ?iy) in step #4 are either relatively prime or have only ? - 1 as a common factor since:
(a) Assume that there exists some prime p that divides both x + ?iy and x + ?i+ky.
(b) Now, we note that:
(x + ?i+ky) - (x + ?iy) = ?i+ky - ?iy = ?i(?k - 1)y
(x + ?i+ky) - ?k(x + ?iy) = x - ?kx = (?k - 1)*(-1)*x
(c) So, if p divides x + ?iy and x + ?i+ky, then p divides both ?i(?k - 1)y and (?k - 1)*(-1)*x
This is true since if a factor a divides b and c, then a divides (b - c) and a also divides (b-dc).
(d) Now, we note that ?i is a unit since ?i * ??-i = 1 and since -1 is a unit.
This gives us that p divides (?k - 1)y and (?k - 1)*x [Since only a unit divides a unit,] (e) Now, we know that p cannot divide both x,y (since x,y are relatively prime) so p must divide ?k - 1 which means that p = ? - 1. (7) If ? - 1 divides any of the element of the form (x + ?iy), then it divides all the other factors of this form since:
(a) if (? - 1) divides (x + ?iy), then (?-1) divides (x + ?i+1y) since:
(x + ?i+1y) - (x + ?iy) = ?i+1y - ?iy = ?i(? - 1)y.
In other words, if a factor a divides c and d and b + c = d, then a must divide b.
(b) if (? - 1) divides (x + ?iy), then (?-1) divides (x + ?i-1y) since:
(x + ?iy) - (x + ?i-1y) = ?i-1(? - 1)y.
(8) Since there are ? - 1 factors of the form (x + ?iy), then (? - 1)?-1 = ?*unit gives us that ? divides z? which using Euclid's Generalized Lemma gives us that ? divides z.
(9) Even if ? divides x or y, we can assume that it divides z.
(a) Let's assume that ? divide x. [if ? divides y, we can use the same argument substituting y for x]
(b) Since ? is odd, we know that -(-x)? = x? and -(-z)? = z?.
(c) This gives us:
(-x)? = y? + (-z)?
(d) Then, if we label (-x)? as z' and (-z)? as x', then we have shown that if ? divides x,y,or z, we can assume an equation of the form z'? = x'? + y? where ? divides z'?
(e) Finally, if ? divides z?, then by Euclid's Generalized Lemma, it divides z.
(10) Step #9 is useful because it means that we only have to consider two cases:
Case I: x,y,z,? are coprime and therefore each factor (a+xjy) are relatively prime to each other.
Case II: ? divides z.
(11) We can now conclude that Fermat's Last Theorem holds for regular primes since:
(a) Fermat's Last Theorem holds for Case I. (b) Fermat's Last Theorem holds for Case II. Generalized Euclid's Lemma
The idea here is that if a prime divides a product of n elements, then it is necessarily divides at least one of those elements.
(1) Let's assume that we have a product of n elements. a = a1 * a2 * ... * an (2) We can take any one of these elements and get: a = a1 * (a2 * ... * an) (3)So, by Euclid's Lemma, the prime either divides a1 or one of the rest of the elements. 4) So, either it divides a1 or a2 etc. (5) And we get to the last two elements, we are done by Euclid's Lemma.
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this article: 15 points
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(posted on 10 Jun 2007 18:16:53 IST)
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| Gud work !!!! |
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(posted on 10 Jun 2007 21:09:43 IST)
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How come u proved the fermat's last theorem? It's prove can't be so easy yaar. No body was able to prove it between 1697-1997! |
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(posted on 10 Jun 2007 21:10:03 IST)
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| I mean it was unproved for 300 years! |
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