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Differential Calculus
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sandeep ramesh
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Joined: 13 Mar 2008
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17 Mar 2008 21:02:20 IST
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umm nice. But how does this work for a = 1, b = 2 and f(x) = 1 for all x?
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17 Mar 2008 21:37:47 IST
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nadeem, marvellous job yet again. That's nice use of intuitive thinking. With nothing said about f(x), the starting point is to note that we can get all real numbers as g maps (a,b) to R.
Another way is to use the function g(x) = (x-a) (x-b) ef(x) and then apply Rolle's Theorem as g(a) = g(b) = 0.
Another way is to use the function g(x) = (x-a) (x-b) ef(x) and then apply Rolle's Theorem as g(a) = g(b) = 0.


![\text{Let f(x) be continuous on [a,b] and differentiable on (a,b)} \\ \\
\text{Prove that there exists} \ c \in (a,b) \ \text {such that} \\ \\
f](http://alt1.artofproblemsolving.com/Forum/latexrender/pictures/0/0/5/0054ded5927cefdeebe03806b30b5cf8a19ed815.gif)




.
, the curves , f'(x) and g(x) intersect . So f'(c) = g(c)
therefore there exists
such that
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