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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 7 May 2008 18:21:12 IST
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y=cotx den nC1 yn-1(0) -- nC3 yn--3(0) +........... =?ans kyaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa hei
if Cos-1(y/b) =n.log(x/n) den x2yn+2 +(2n+1)x.yn+1 +2n2yn =?
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 7 May 2008 22:32:28 IST
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I didnt get ur question
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never ever think you r unworthy think wat know is much and try to build it up.
And plzzzzzzz always point out my mistake if iam wrong any where.
<SRIRAM> always evil never trust meeeeeeeee |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 11 May 2008 11:02:13 IST
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plz urgenteez jaldi bolo
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 11 May 2008 11:19:25 IST
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2)y/b=cos(nlnx/n) y'=-bsin(nlnx/n)(n/x)
xy'=-nbsin(nlnx/n) xy"+y'=-nbcos(nlnx/n)(n/x) x2y"+xy'+n2y=0
Applying leibnitz theorem and taking nth derivative on both sides,
x2yn+2+nc1(2x)yn+1+nc2(2)yn+xyn+1+nc1yn+n2yn=0
x2yn+2+(2n+1)xyn+1+2n2yn=0
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 13 May 2008 15:27:11 IST
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plz tell me
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 13 May 2008 16:55:07 IST
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I think the answer to the first qn is cos( npi/2 )
as cos ( x ) differentiated n -times is cos ( x + npi/2 ) .
It s simply ( y sin x ) differentiated n times and expanded by Leibneitz theorem with x = 0 , sin ( x ) = 0 , cosx = 1
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 13 May 2008 21:24:13 IST
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Gud ans sir.I kept on differntiating cotx n times but couldnot succeed.I never got the idea of taking sinx to the other side.Thank you.
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 14 May 2008 10:51:48 IST
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thanx sir words rnt sufficient to praise tanx again
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