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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 24 Feb 2008 11:53:32 IST
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Find x such that 2001x+2004x = 2002x+2003x
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Time wounds all heels |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 24 Feb 2008 12:19:23 IST
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Impossible To be Impossible is Impossible |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 24 Feb 2008 12:19:26 IST
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2002x-2001x=2004x-2003x 2002=2001+1
(2001+1)x-2001x=(2003+1)x-2003x
expanding we get
1+xC1(2001)+xC2(2001)2+....xCx-1(2001)x-1=1+xC1(2003)+xC2(2003)2+....xCx-1(2003)x-1
so only value for x can be 0 and 1
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 24 Feb 2008 12:29:28 IST
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Good. Any other approaches. You can take a hint from the category under which it is posted. I said any other approach, because the above one is not completely legitimate. I dont think all of us are comfortable with binomial theorem applied to real numbers. There is something more to be done
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Time wounds all heels |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 24 Feb 2008 20:29:10 IST
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2001x+2004x/2002x +2003x =1 takin log on both sides log 2001^x+2004^x=log 2004^x+2003^x differentiating on both sides and using formula d/dx(a^x)=a^x log a d/dx(log x)=1/x we will get the ans hope method is right!! 
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 26 Feb 2008 13:33:18 IST
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Method I: Write the equation as 2004x - 2003x = 2002x - 2001x Now, consider the function f(x) = px - (p-1)x for p>1. f'(p) = x(px-1 - (p-1)x-1) You can see that f'(x) = 0 for x=0 or x=1. for any other value of x, f'(p) is a strictly monotonic function. which means 2004x - 2003x = 2002x - 2001x only if x=0 or x =1.
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 26 Feb 2008 13:53:19 IST
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To prove:  CASE 1 : x > 1
It can be easily shown that and as , , =>  Hence no solution for x > 1. CASE 2: x < 0 Let sucht that . . => Thus there are no solutions for x < 0 . Case 3: x = 0 or x = 1 These 2 are the only solutions. edit: I was typing out my solution when you posted your method, i guess this one is not so different.
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Guide to latex:
http://www.goiit.com/posts/list/community-shelf-a-guide-to-latex-48056.htm
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 26 Feb 2008 14:19:38 IST
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Koni: What happens for 0<x<1.
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Time wounds all heels |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 26 Feb 2008 19:13:43 IST
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. Similary, . So the graphs of both f(x) and g(x) are concave upwards (a parabola opening upwards). Any 2 functions which satisfy this condition can intersect only at 2 points.
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Guide to latex:
http://www.goiit.com/posts/list/community-shelf-a-guide-to-latex-48056.htm
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 26 Feb 2008 19:52:47 IST
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There is one more approach, and this line of reasoning could also prove useful: Again rewrite as 2004x - 2003x = 2002x - 2001x Now, consider f(t) = tx. By Intermediate Value Theorem, there exists p  [2004,2003] such that xpx-1 = 2004x - 2003x /(2004-2003) = 2004x - 2003x Similarly there exists q  [2004,2003] such that xqx-1 = 2002x - 2001x /(2002-2001) = 2002x - 2001x Hence xpx-1 = xqx-1 or x(px-1 -qx-1) = 0 Since p and q are distinct, x=0 or x=1 are the only possibilities.
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