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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 26 Feb 2008 00:01:35 IST
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The minimum value of is ?
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 26 Feb 2008 00:09:39 IST
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Hi, I am not too sure but acc. to me, the answer's like this. sinx and cosx can have values only, So, max value of func. having sinx and cosx, should be at x = pie/4 Am i correct ????
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 26 Feb 2008 00:16:15 IST
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when n is odd min. value is 0
when n is even min. value is 2
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 26 Feb 2008 00:20:08 IST
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{iam takin alpha as @} My try Reduce the given xpression , u'll get somethin like this Let S= [1/sinn@cosn@ + 1/cosn@ + 1/sinn@ + 1 ] Let (1/sinn@cosn@),(1/cosn@),(1/sinn@),1 be terms of a prog. AM>=GM S>=4[1/sin@cos@]n/2 S>=4.root(2)
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 26 Feb 2008 00:25:10 IST
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" The difficult we do immediately, impossible takes a little longer "
--- U.S. Army
"It's better to have a gun and not need it than to need a gun and
not have it."
--- The Sniper
"You can get more with a kind word and a gun than you can with a
kind word. "
--- The Sniper
"Join the Army: travel to exotic distant lands; meet exciting,
unusual people and kill them. "
--- The Sniper
"The victor will never be asked if he told the truth."
--- Adolf Hitler
"Stop talking, start doing"
--- IBM
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 26 Feb 2008 00:25:43 IST
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On opening the brackets,we get 1+(secx)^n +(cosecx)^n+(secx*cosecx)^n...dis exp. can be written as [1-(secx*cosecx)^n/2]^2 +(secx)^n +(cosecx)^n+2*(secx*cosecx)^n/2....dis exp. is minimum wen [1-(secx*cosecx)^n/2]^2 is minimum...(it cannot be 0)...dat happens wen x=pie/4...so min. value cums out 2 be [1-(2)^n/2]^2+[1+(2)^n/2]^2...=2+2^(n+1)...i think dis maybe de ans...
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 26 Feb 2008 12:20:22 IST
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Hi sniper, here u go
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 26 Feb 2008 12:29:47 IST
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Assuming sin  and cos  are +ve , it is a straightforward application of Cauchy-Schwarz inequality: (a 2+b 2) (c 2+d 2)  (ac+bd) 2 If a = 1, b = 1/sin n/2 , c = 1, d = 1/cos n/2 then (1+1/sin n ) (1+1/cos n )  (1+1/sin n/2 cos n/2 ) 2 = (1+2 n/2/sin n/22  ) 2  (1+2 n/2) 2 Equality occurs when  = n  +  /4
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