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agnit_thebest (223)

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The domain of definition of the function y(x) given by the equation ax+ay=a(a>1) is
a) 0<x<=1
b) 0<=x<1
c) -infinity<x<1
d) -infinity<x<=0
    
ramyadiamond (1297)

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I think its c.
 
ay = a-ax
as a>1
hence it is safer to take log on both sides
y.loga=log(a-ax)
 
hence, a-ax >0
        ax<a
x.loga<loga
x<1
 
Hence, i think it should be c.
Do correct me if i'm wrong.
 

-Ramya
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agnit_thebest (223)

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Sorry the answer given is b.
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pottermania1990 (357)

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try substituiting a as 2,b as -2
condition c and are not satisfied
 
by substit. we can eleminate a c and d
ans . is b
 
i noe my reply is not up 2 the mark

kaushik krishna .R
bits pilani
mech engg
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asmit (231)

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a^x +a^y=a or   a^(x-1)+a^(y-1)=1 {a not equal to 0}
so since a>1 therefore to make each less than 1, x-1<0
or x<1  The other end of the domain has to be -infinity because y can be adjusted likewise. It should be (c),
For ex. put x=  -2 you get with a=2
2^(-3)+2^(y-1)=1 or 2^(y-1)=7/8 therefore (y-1)= -.19 or y=.8
which satisfies the condition
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joyfrancis (1504)

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Dont you think it should be ax+ay(x)=a
Since y is a function.
 
Like if we have any function f(x)... af has no meaning.
Please See.

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asmit (231)

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Why? the question is perfectly alright.We don't need to worry about whether y is a func. of x..Infact the above question is valid for n variables that is x,y,z,w,p,q,......
 
a^x+a^y+a^z+a^w+a^p.......=a
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aansh_c (24)

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1stly hw did u gt d power up dere temme also
a(power of x) + a(power of y)=a?
a(power of y)=a-a(power of x)
take log 2 d base a on both sides
y=log(a-a(power of x)) 2 d base of a
now a-a(power of x) should be>0
i.e. a(power of of x)<a
nw since a is >1
d inequality sign doesnt chng & it bcoms
x<1
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savvej (249)

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ans is b.rayamond is right n also o satisfies the function and the domain cant be negative.hence.



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ramyadiamond (1297)

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as far as i can see, there's no problem in taking x negative. so hy cant it be (c)??

-Ramya
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savvej (249)

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@ raymond give example



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asmit (231)

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Savvej I have given one example
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