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Differential Calculus

Hari Shankar's Avatar
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2 Sep 2008 18:46:16 IST
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Non-zero derivative
None

Let f(x) = sin (x3). Find out for what n will fn(x) i.e. the nth derivative of f(x) be non-zero at x = 0?


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Anant Kumar's Avatar

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Joined: 10 Jul 2008
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3 Sep 2008 01:09:25 IST
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First, we note that the Taylor series of an infinitely often differentiable function in an open interval

containing the point is

\sum_{n=0}^\infty \dfrac{f^{(n)}(0)}{n!}\;x^n \qquad (1)

From there it is easily seen that the coefficient of can be used to find out the derivative of the -th order

for .

Now consider the series representation of :

\sin x = \sum_{k=0}^\infty \dfrac{(-1)^k }{(2k+1)!}\; x^{2k+1}     \qquad      \textrm{for all }x

Therefore,

f(x)=\sin x^3 = \sum_{k=0}^\infty \dfrac{(-1)^k }{(2k+1)!}\; (x^3)^{2k+1} = \sum_{k=0}^\infty \dfrac{(-1)^k }{(2k+1)!}\; x^{6k+3} \qquad (2)

By comparing (1) and (2), we see that the -th derivative of at is non-zero only for those which are of the form for , , , . And when is of this form, the -th derivative is f^n(0)=(-1)^k \dfrac{(6k+3)!}{(2k+1)!}

For example , therefore the 45-th derivative at is non-zero and

f^{(45)}(0) = -\dfrac{45!}{15!}

Anant Kumar's Avatar

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13 Sep 2008 11:57:08 IST
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Actually, in the line after the equation (1), it should be read " ..... the coefficient of can be used to find the -th order derivative at ."..


 



 



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