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Ask iit jee aieee pet cbse icse state board community Community Discussion Question: prove the following
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sneha_91 (27)

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if a0+a1/2+a2/3........................an-1/n+an/n+1=0


show that the equ. a0 +a1x+a2x2........................anxn=0has atleast one root in (0,1)

    
pottermania1990 (357)

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for such qns...this is the standard approach,,,,,,,


 


xonsider the eqn. f(x)=.a0x + a1x^2+a2x^3....................


its simple application of mean value theorem...


f(0)=f(1)=0


since the function is continuous and differentaible in (0,1)


 


there lies atleat one c in (0,1) such that f'(c) = 0





proved

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budokai_tenkaichi_returns (409)

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girl..


do u know lmvt..


its ok..then


integrate ur equation..


then u will see that the equation vanishes at x=0


and x=1 (from the condition given..)


this means F(0)=F(1)


hence ..f(x) which is the derivative of F(x) vanishes atleast once in (0,1) -----by LMVT


LMVT=lagrange's mean value theorem (cbse boards..)


 


SAIYANS ARE OF TRUE WARRIOR RACE . DONT UNDER-ESTIMATE US!
special theory of relativity ....i luv it...
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RyuAmakusa (942)

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it is simple see take the integerated exp of the second eq. for this function f(0)=f(1) now apply rolles theorm.is it clear.
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ashish_banga (1016)

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let F(x) = a0 x + a0 x^2 /2 .........
F(0) = 0
F(1) = a0+a1/2+a2/3........................an-1/n+an/n+1=0

so here rolles theorum applies
there is a point in [0,1] where F'(c) = 0

so it has atleast a solution in [0,1]
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