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Ask iit jee aieee pet cbse icse state board community Community Discussion Question: Why isn't the function sin 'inverse'cos x non differentiable at x=0?
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indr12365 (67)

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Why isn't the function sin 'inverse'cos x non differentiable at x=0?
    
Decoder (774)

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always go by basic def..

sin(inv) cos(h) - sin(inv)cos(0) / h = rhd..

sin(inv)cos(-h) - sin (inv)cos0 / -h . = lhd..

so we observe tht there is surely a difference of negative sign b/w them..

still i solve..

it is pi/2 - h -pi/2 /h ... and pi/2 -h - pi/2 / (-h)

so -1 and 1 ...

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indr12365 (67)

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I shall rate whole heartedly if u expl. how tat ' -h ' come in solution .please...
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determinedforiit (552)

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 i think for right hand derivative we have: x=0+h


left hand derivative we have: x=0-h 


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Forum Index -> Differential Calculus
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