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Integral Calculus

Blazing goIITian

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1 Jan 2010 21:36:02 IST
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Loading..Definte integration
None

1)

2)If then Prove that

3)

4)Let . Then find the real roots of the equation   ?


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kabi's Avatar

Blazing goIITian

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1 Jan 2010 22:01:19 IST
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i m in a hurry so just giving answer to 1st one .

int ( -3 to -1 ) (x+1)(x+2)(x+3) dx

Transformation x+2 =y

=int (-1 to 1 ) (y-1) y (y+1)dy

= 0

eragon24's Avatar

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1 Jan 2010 22:53:59 IST
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Blazing goIITian

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1 Jan 2010 22:56:26 IST
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edited

Deepak Aggarwal's Avatar

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2 Jan 2010 18:19:34 IST
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4. Apply lebnitz theorem,

So, u will get f'(x) = ( 2 - x2 )1/2

Since, x2 = f'(x) = ( 2 - x2 )1/2

So, x4 =  2 - x2

or, x4 + x2 - 2 = 0

or, x4 + 2x2 - x2 - 2 = 0

or, (x2 - 1) (x2 + 2) = 0

Now since x is real, so x2 = 1 and other value is neglected

therefore, x = + 1 which are the required roots

 

 

 

Deepak Aggarwal's Avatar

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2 Jan 2010 18:23:14 IST
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3. Try solving integral with the properties of definite integral.

U will get (4096)a11/2 / (3465) = (7/8)(pi)a5

Solving it, u get a = ( 33 (35)1/2 ) / 128

Calculation is a bit complicated in this question.

 I would try it later if it could be solved by some other method.

taran's Avatar

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3 Jan 2010 01:06:37 IST
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in 3) try putting x =square root of (2a)*sintheta


Blazing goIITian

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4 Jan 2010 15:37:33 IST
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thank a ton for helping me out.. can u plz post post d complete solution for 3rd one..thnx.. also few more doubts

5)If then find at

6)Prove that

7)Show that

8)

 yamini 's Avatar

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4 Jan 2010 18:14:43 IST
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I = integral 0-pi xdx/1+cos^2x .........1eqn

I=integral 0-pi (pi-x)dx/1+cos^2(pi-x) = (dx/1+cos^2xpi-x)....2eqn

adding 1 and 2

2I = integral 0-pi pidx/1+cos^2x

I = pi/2 integral 0-pi dx/1+cos^2x = pi/2(0-pi dx/1+cos^2x +0-pi/2 dx/1+cos^2(pi-x))

=pi integral 0-pi sec^2xdx/ 2+tan^2 x .........put tanx = t

= pi integral 0-infinity dt/t^2+2 =pi/root2 tan inverse (t/root2) limits 0- infinity

=pi^2/2root2

Akshay's Avatar

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4 Jan 2010 18:23:43 IST
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5)

Differentiate using Newton Leibnitz theorem,

f'(x) =  2xcos2x/(1+sin2(x))

f'(pi) = 2(pi)

6) (Not able to post using goiit equation editor so i'll just give you the idea)

Let sin(t) = x

Then t = sin-1(x)

i.e. dt = dx/{1-x2}1/2

Therefore the integral reduces to  INTEGRAL (0 to pi/2) {log(sint)dt}

Let I = INTEGRAL (0 to pi/2) log(sint)dt

i.e. I = INTEGRAL (0 to pi/2) log(cost)dt

so 2I = INTEGRAL (0 to pi/2) log(sint.cost)dt

         = INTEGRAL (0 to pi/2) log(sin2t/2)dt

       = INTEGRAL (0 to pi/2)logsin2tdt - INTEGRAL(0 to pi/2)log2dt

     But , INTEGRAL (0 to pi/2) log(sin2t)dt = INTEGRAL (0 to pi)(0.5sinzdz) = I

i.e. I = -(pi/2)log(2)

8) Is easy. Use the property INTEGRAL(0 to a) f(x)dx = INTEGRAL (0 to a)f(a-x)dx

So the integral reduces to I =  INTEGRAL (0 to pi)0.5(pi)dx/{1+cos2x}

Now, replace cosx = 1/secx.  However this makes the function discontinuous at x=(pi/2)

So split the integral as INTEGRAL (0 to pi/2) + INTEGRAL (pi/2 to pi)

Now replace cosx = 1/secx, put tanx = t and proceed.

 yamini 's Avatar

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4 Jan 2010 22:32:53 IST
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 yamini 's Avatar

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4 Jan 2010 22:33:28 IST
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Akshay's Avatar

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4 Jan 2010 23:03:29 IST
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I =

(integral property)

2I   =

since 2sinxcosx =sin2x,

 = 2I

 

Consider,

    Put 2x = t

So you have

 

Use property of integrals,

Now you can easily prove that I1 = I

hence I = -(pi/2) (log2)

=(pi/2)(log(1/2))

 

 

Akshay's Avatar

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4 Jan 2010 23:36:37 IST
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This obviously follows from ,

Let

so

Akshay's Avatar

Blazing goIITian

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5 Jan 2010 00:20:09 IST
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BUT

Hence,

Akshay's Avatar

Blazing goIITian

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5 Jan 2010 21:24:28 IST
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INTEGRATE BY PARTS, EVAULATE THE INDEFINITE INTEGRAL FIRST

 (TYPO HERE, IGNORE 'dx')

 

NOW APPLY THE LIMITS,

.........(1)

NOW FOR THE LOWER LIMIT, AS THE LOG FUNCTIONS BECOME INFINITE AT X=0, WE HAVE TO CONSIDER THE LIMITING VALUE

SO, LOWER LIMIT

CONSIDER

EVALUATE THIS LIMIT BY L'HOSPITAL RULE,

SO THE LOWER LIMIT BECOMES

................(2)

 

NOW  ,

Akshay's Avatar

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5 Jan 2010 21:28:18 IST
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  denotes logarithm to the base "e".

 

Yagyadutt Mishra's Avatar

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6 Jan 2010 16:25:37 IST
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Yagyadutt Mishra's Avatar

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6 Jan 2010 16:34:31 IST
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The third question will give rise to a hypergeometric function........

 

 

so dont worry for that one...

Akshay's Avatar

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6 Jan 2010 18:52:45 IST
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For the question 7, I got a much simpler method.

Put cosx = t , you have,

 

Integrate by parts,

Take 1 as the function u, and the log term as function v,

(differentiation is with respect to "t" and not x )

                                     

                                       (theres a typo here, The signs are interchanged within the log term it's actually sqrt(1+t/1-t))

So

                                             

Limits from 0 to 1,

   (This is a  form converted into 0/0. Evaluate using L'Hospital Rule)

You will see that this value comes out to be zero

Hence the upper limit value comes out to be 

Lower limit t=0  = 0

Hence the value of the integral




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