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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 20 Mar 2008 15:00:30 IST
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0 1 2(tan-1x)2dx...
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iitaspirant001@yahoo.com |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 20 Mar 2008 18:47:00 IST
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hiiii
just put tan(-1)x as t .. n thn use the integration by parts
u shall get the answer ..
i hope this helps
cheers
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Puneet Agrawal
IIT Delhi
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 20 Mar 2008 19:02:07 IST
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we are not getting d ans like dis..............
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 20 Mar 2008 19:05:54 IST
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thanks for the response puneet bhaiyya..but m still stuck
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iitaspirant001@yahoo.com |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 20 Mar 2008 21:52:40 IST
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multiply ((1+x^2)^2)/((1+x^2)^2)
then take ( tan(-1)x(1+x^2)) as the integrable func.
then apply by parts i think this shall solve the prob
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 20 Mar 2008 21:59:00 IST
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try it. I dont think it will work after wolfram has said that there is a complex soln or no soln exists :)
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 20 Mar 2008 22:02:59 IST
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plzzz dont rate for this and all, its embarrasing
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 20 Mar 2008 22:13:33 IST
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JEE and OLYMPIA INFINATUM
http://iit-redefined.theforum.name/index.php
join the revolution!! |
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