IIT JEE , AIEEE Forum - Mathematics , Integral Calculus

coolpals_16

if I₁= $\int_{0}^{1}({2}^{{x}^{2}})dx$ ,I₂₌,I₃₌AND I₄= $\int_{1}^{2}({2}^{{x}^{3}})dx$ ,THEN

A) I₃>I₄ B) I₃=I₄, C) I₁>1₂ D) I₂>I₁

sandeepramesh

shdnt it be C Huh? Huh?

sandeepramesh

Ofc i might be wrong (esp in calculus :D :D ) I just took into account the observation that ${x}^{2} \ge {x}^{3} for x\in [0,1]$ thats all and nothing more!

sriram.a

I think the answer is (A).Since $\frac{d{I}_{3}}{dx}<\frac{d{I}_{4}}{dx}$

riku

nice one..

the answer is obviously (C), cause in interval (1,2); x² attains lesser values than x³ while in (0,1) its vice versa...

So the area covered decreases in I₂., than I₁, in (0,1)...

And these functions when raised to number not in (0,1),, the resultant function also attains higher values,,, and area covered also increases.....

arpan1

yes sandeep is right, ans is c

krishna.gopal

Well lots of right answers. It is (c) only.

coolpals_16

the right answer is c ....thnx a lot every1

Ask & Discuss Questions with Community & Experts