Home » Ask & Discuss » Mathematics. » Integral Calculus « Back to Discussion
Integral Calculus
Comments (16)
Hari Shankar
Forum Expert
Joined: 28 Feb 2007
Posts: 2173
11 Feb 2008 09:07:51 IST
Like
0 people liked this
Is this problem so easy that it is not even worth a dekko?
Reply
11 Feb 2008 19:10:25 IST
Like
0 people liked this
Hi sir,
I got a method, but final ans involves somethin in terms of
[0 ]
[1 ] 1/7*t^1/3*(1-t)^-6/7dt and [0 ]
[1 ] t^1/7(1-t)^-2/3dt
[1 ] 1/7*t^1/3*(1-t)^-6/7dt and [0 ]
[1 ] t^1/7(1-t)^-2/3dtI was able to simplify it in terms of beta function as
1/7B(4/3,1/7)-1/3B(8/7,1/3)
but i don know how beta fn works for fractions
tell me if rt, ill post my method
11 Feb 2008 20:11:29 IST
Like
0 people liked this
refer http://integrals.wolfram.com/index.jsp
u might get some help
i am unable to do this one
12 Feb 2008 09:21:54 IST
Like
4 people liked this
First a confession. I had no clue how to go about this one. I have filched the solution. The reason I've put it in this forum is that I thought this is a typical JEE problem which tries to lam you under the chin with a very simple concept.
We have to find 0
1f(x) - g(x) dx where f(x) = 3
(1-x7) and g(x) = 7
1-x3
1f(x) - g(x) dx where f(x) = 3
(1-x7) and g(x) = 7
1-x3 The solution becomes very evident when you recognise that g = f-1.
I mean if y = 3
(1-x7) then y3 = 1-x7 and x = 7
1-y3.
(1-x7) then y3 = 1-x7 and x = 7
1-y3.Also, we have when x=0, y=1 and when x=1, y=0 which also means when y=0,x =1 and when y=1,x=0.
The "graph"ologists among you will recognise that the area under the curves for both f and g between the limits 0 and 1 are same.
Hence the answer is 0.














