| Author |
Message |
![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 1 Feb 2008 14:53:09 IST
|
|
|
[0 ] [ /2] [sin -1(cosx)+cos -1(sinx)] where [.] denotes the greatest integer function is________ (a)pi-3 (c)pi - 6 2 2 (b)3pi-9 (d) 3pi - 6 2 2 plizz explain wid complete steps (esp. where the [ ] function cums into picture as i donn understand how 2 solve probs involving box func)
|
VARSHA KRISHNAN....
------------------------------------
IIT is always a word which rises E thru' d body. But 2 achieve it U hav 2 drain out d entire E out of the body....
|
|
|
|
![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 1 Feb 2008 19:19:09 IST
|
|
|
0 /2 [sin -1(cosx) + cos -1(sinx)] dx Now sin -1(cosx) + cos -1(sinx) = (  /2-x) + (  /2-x) (because we are in the safe environs of the 1st quadrant.) =  -2x Hence our integral is 0 /2 [pi-2x]dx and applying the substitution t =  /2-2x we get 0 /2 [2t]dt. Now, the Riemann Integral for the function doesn't exist as it is not a continuous function. But I guess there is a way to tide over the points of discontinuity (and I need someone to validate this). Now please feel free to rain bricks on my head.
|
Time wounds all heels |
this reply: 10 points
(with 2 
in 2 votes ) [?]
|
|
You have to be logged on to rate
|
|
|
![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 1 Feb 2008 20:35:15 IST
|
|
|
well,i checked d soln..it was in y file of brill. . it says pi-2x =3 --(1) and hence x=(pi-3)/2 even if we use [ ] for(1) i dunno how one gets 3 ( i repeat i am not at all clear on [ ] func so i maybe rong ) hence d interval for integ was split acc ..........but i dunno how
|
VARSHA KRISHNAN....
------------------------------------
IIT is always a word which rises E thru' d body. But 2 achieve it U hav 2 drain out d entire E out of the body....
|
this reply: 0 points
(with 0 
in 0 votes ) [?]
|
|
You have to be logged on to rate
|
|
|
![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 1 Feb 2008 20:37:47 IST
|
|
|
i used d prop. [0 ] [b ] f(x) dx = 0 b f(b-x) dx and got d integ as = 2x is my method rite?? if not plizz temme wher im rong
|
VARSHA KRISHNAN....
------------------------------------
IIT is always a word which rises E thru' d body. But 2 achieve it U hav 2 drain out d entire E out of the body....
|
this reply: 0 points
(with 0 
in 0 votes ) [?]
|
|
You have to be logged on to rate
|
|
|
![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 1 Feb 2008 21:23:05 IST
|
|
|
Kindly make your posts intelligible. like showing steps here and there. For eg you say you use the property [0 ] [b ] f(x) dx =0 b f(b-x) dx. So you should get [2x] and not 2x. Its not clear how you arrived at 2x. and in the previous post there is an eqn pi-2x = 3. What on earth is meant by that.
|
Time wounds all heels |
this reply: 0 points
(with 0 
in 0 votes ) [?]
|
|
You have to be logged on to rate
|
|
|
![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 3 Feb 2008 18:15:18 IST
|
|
|
we have a property of definite integrals that [ o] [ a] f(x)dx= [ 0] [a ] f(a-x)dx using this prop., the given integral transforms into [ 0] [ ]  /2 [arcsin(sinx)+ arccos(cosx)]dx = [ 0] [ ]  /2 [ x+x]dx = [0 ] [ ]  /2 [2x]dx now use the above property again... what u ge inside the integral is.. 2I = [ 0] [ ]  /2 [2x] + [  -2x]dx now consider any two numbers (u dont need if negative numbers...not in the integral)...[a] + [b] =either [a+b} or [a+b] - 1 inside the integral if there is a 1 involved then it will get ancelled in the definite integration process the intregral becomes.. I= [0 ] [ ]  /2 [2x +  - 2x] dx now [  ] is 3 hence the answer is 3  /2 which is option (a.) am i rite??
|
this reply: 0 points
(with 0 
in 0 votes ) [?]
|
|
You have to be logged on to rate
|
|
|
![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 7 Feb 2008 10:45:57 IST
|
|
|
hsbhatt is correct. Good work.
kulki_1123 recheck your solution.
Once we arrived at I = [0] [pi/2] [2x].dx
Split the integrals where [2x] changes its values.
Answer comes out to be 3pi/2 - 3 which is d.
|
Bipin Kumar Dubey
Chemical Dept.
IIT Kharagpur
|
this reply: 5 points
(with 1 
in 1 votes ) [?]
|
|
You have to be logged on to rate
|
|
|
![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 7 Feb 2008 11:33:50 IST
|
|
|
Thank you sir for clearing this one up.
|
Time wounds all heels |
this reply: 0 points
(with 0 
in 0 votes ) [?]
|
|
You have to be logged on to rate
|
|
|
|
|