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punnima (563)

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[0 ][ /2]  [sin-1(cosx)+cos-1(sinx)]    where [.] denotes the greatest integer function is________
 
(a)pi-3                                 (c)pi - 6
     2                                         2
(b)3pi-9                               (d) 3pi - 6
      2                                           2
plizz explain wid complete steps  (esp. where the [ ] function cums into picture as i donn understand how 2 solve probs involving box func)

VARSHA KRISHNAN....
------------------------------------
IIT is always a word which rises E thru' d body. But 2 achieve it U hav 2 drain out d entire E out of the body....

    
hsbhatt (4888)

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0/2 [sin-1(cosx) + cos-1(sinx)] dx
Now sin-1(cosx) + cos-1(sinx) = (/2-x) + (/2-x) (because we are in the safe environs of the 1st quadrant.) = -2x
 
Hence our integral is 0/2 [pi-2x]dx and applying the substitution t = /2-2x we get 0/2 [2t]dt. Now, the Riemann Integral for the function doesn't exist as it is not a continuous function.  But I guess there is a way to tide over the points of discontinuity (and I need someone to validate this).
 
We can compute the integral as (leaving out the first interval where the func is zero) 0.5+1-dx + 1+1.5 - 2dx +1.5+/2 3dx = (1- - 0.5 - ) + 2(1.5- - 1 -)+3(/2 - 1.5 - ) and then let 0 giving 3/2 - 3 which is option (d)
 
Now please feel free to rain bricks on my head.
 
 
 

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punnima (563)

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well,i checked d soln..it was in y file of brill. .
it says pi-2x =3 --(1)
and hence x=(pi-3)/2
 
even if we use  [ ]  for(1) i dunno how one gets 3 ( i repeat i am not at all clear on [ ] func so i maybe rong )
 
hence d interval for integ was split acc ..........but i dunno how

VARSHA KRISHNAN....
------------------------------------
IIT is always a word which rises E thru' d body. But 2 achieve it U hav 2 drain out d entire E out of the body....

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punnima (563)

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i used d prop. [0 ][b ] f(x) dx =0b  f(b-x) dx
and got d integ as = 2x
is my method rite??
 
if not plizz temme wher im rong

VARSHA KRISHNAN....
------------------------------------
IIT is always a word which rises E thru' d body. But 2 achieve it U hav 2 drain out d entire E out of the body....

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hsbhatt (4888)

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Kindly make your posts intelligible. like showing steps here and there. For eg you say you use the property [0 ][b ] f(x) dx =0b  f(b-x) dx. So you should get [2x] and not 2x. Its not clear how you arrived at 2x. and in the previous post there is an eqn pi-2x = 3. What on earth is meant by that.

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kulki_1123 (0)

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we have a property of definite integrals that [ o][ a] f(x)dx=[ 0][a ] f(a-x)dx 
 
using this prop., the given integral transforms into
 
 
[ 0][ ] /2  [arcsin(sinx)+ arccos(cosx)]dx
 
= [ 0][ ] /2  [ x+x]dx
 
=
[0 ][ ] /2  [2x]dx
 
now use the above property again...
 
what u ge inside the integral is..
 
2I =
[ 0][ ] /2  [2x] + [-2x]dx
 
now consider any two numbers (u dont need if negative numbers...not in the integral)...[a] + [b] =either [a+b} or [a+b] - 1
inside the integral if there is a 1 involved then it will get ancelled in the definite integration process
the intregral becomes..
 
I=   [0 ][ ] /2  [2x +  - 2x] dx
 
I=  [0 ][ ] /2   []dx
 
now [] is 3
 
hence the answer is
 
3/2
which is option (a.) 
 
am i rite??
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iitkgp_bipin (6144)

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hsbhatt is correct. Good work.

kulki_1123 recheck your solution.

Once we arrived at I = [0][pi/2] [2x].dx

Split the integrals where [2x] changes its values.

Answer comes out to be 3pi/2 - 3 which is d.






Bipin Kumar Dubey
Chemical Dept.
IIT Kharagpur

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hsbhatt (4888)

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Thank you sir for clearing this one up.

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