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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 13 Jul 2008 14:21:34 IST
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1)

2)

Ans fr both the qs = 
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God has given you one face, and you
make yourself another.
~William Shakespeare
You were born an original. Don't die a copy.
~John Mason |
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1)f(1/x)=
Put k=1/t then dt=(-1/k2)dk.So,the integral becomes


So,f(x)+f(1/x)=
Putting x=e,we get f(e)+f(1/e)=1/2.
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MAKING A MISTAKE IS HUMAN BUT REPEATING IT IS IDIOTIC. |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 13 Aug 2008 11:30:10 IST
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i have checked a lot of times the ans for the second q is 0 and not 1/2.i will post the sol. but the editor is not working so it might not be clear. any way put x-t as k so the integral becomes -dk/1+|k| the limits are from x to x-1 u can consume that - to change the limit from x-1 to x now use leibnitz rule u get f'(x) = (1/1+|x-1| ) - (1/1+|x| ) now sub x=1/2 u get the ans to be 0.........
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