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Ask iit jee aieee pet cbse icse state board experts Expert Question: integration of
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shiv_iit08 (0)

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sec2xdx , lower limit-0 & upper limit-
    
Anup (157)

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replacing by pi-x v can see that the function is even ...........
hence the limits change to 0 to pi/2
integral of sec^2x is tanx

putting limits in tanx
tan pi/2=infinity
ans = infinity
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Anup (157)

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edited
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amulye (173)

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do u think dat log0 = infinity
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edison (4435)

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Since
sec2xdx = tan x + C,
 
Thus, [ 0][ ] sec2xdx = tan  - tan 0 = tan

The most incomprehensible thing about the world is that it is

at all comprehensible.
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edison (4435)

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This is for Amulye

log0 is not equal to infinity

rather log0 = log 10^x = x,

so here x = - infinity

thus log0 = - infinity

The most incomprehensible thing about the world is that it is

at all comprehensible.
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sboosy (3011)

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\mbox{I am afraid that the answer given by Mr Edison might be incorrect} \\ \\ \mbox{To begin with we know} \ \sec^2x>=1 \\ \\ \mbox{Now we also know that definite integrals preserve inequalities.Thus} \\ \\ \int_0^\pi sec^2x\,dx \geq \int_0^\pi 1\,dx \\ \\ \Rightarrow \int_0^\pi sec^2x\,dx \geq \pi > 0 \\ \\ \mbox{Thus i think that the answer to this question cannot be} \ \tan(\pi) \ \mbox{which is} \ 0
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pottermania1990 (342)

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we can also say that the given integration is the area of sec^2x in the limit 0 to pie which is always positive and non - zero..

also if u split the integral into 2 parts..i.e is from 0 to pie/2 and from pie/2 to pie ,u land up with -

again indeterminate
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akhil_o (2704)

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For integration the function must be defined at pi/2
but sec x -> infinity at pi/2
so it cant be integrated

" Always remember money isn't everything but make sure you have made a lot of it before talking such nonsense!"
- Bill Gates
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elastiboysai (2327)

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downld the img.
looks like the area is not convergent.
it is surely ggreater than pi sboosy for it worked out to be
6578.2676

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amulye (173)

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hey its actually

tanx I upper lt 0 to lower lt pie

hence tanpie - tan0 =0

hence it may b 0

rate if satisfied
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neeraj_agarwal_1990 (914)

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when u do this...u r substituting tanx=t,=>sec^2xdx=dt....

but note that since tanx is discontinuous at pi/2, we can substitute its value...

for substituting a function,it should be continuous,differentiable and monotonous in the given interval...if not...then we have to apply jugad...

as anup said...
function is even, divide the upper limit by 2 and put 2 outside....

now its 2 [tanx] from 0 to pi/2 which is 2(infinity-0)=infinity...

so the given function does not converge....

also note that tanpi/2 is NOT DEFINED and its not infinity...but while calculating such integrals...we take the limiting value at that point....which is infinity in this case...
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