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Magnetism
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17 Jan 2008 13:41:02 IST
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It is simple !!!!!!!!!!!!
I am giving u the formal approach to solve the problem
see , dF = I dl * B
Now B = B er
& dl = dl e
( Where er ,e
& e
are the unit vectors in the spherical coordinate )
( Where er ,e
& e
are the unit vectors in the spherical coordinate ) Taking the cross product , we have dF = I B e
dl
dl ( because e
* er = e
)
* er = e
) Now e
= cos
cos
i + cos
sin
j - sin
k
= cos
cos
i + cos
sin
j - sin
k& dl = a d

Integrating dF , (
limiting from 0 to 2
) noting that i & j component cancels ,
limiting from 0 to 2
) noting that i & j component cancels , We have F = 2
BIa sin
k
BIa sin
kNow sin
= a / sqrt ( a^2 + d^2 )
= a / sqrt ( a^2 + d^2 ) so Force = F = 2
BI a^2 / sqrt ( a^2 + d^2 ) k
BI a^2 / sqrt ( a^2 + d^2 ) k18 Jan 2008 20:53:00 IST
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But I should warn you that this is not a physical problem , only a mathematical exercise .
Because , according to Maxwell's eqn we must have
div B = 0
But for B = B er we have div B = 2 B / r which is non zero everywhere .
So nowhere in our universe you can find such a magnetic - field distribution.












on a small element dl force acting can be given as
dF = iBdl
=> dF= i Be^ dl
Resolving this force (shown in red) in 2 perpendicular directions the vertical components will get canceled.
so
F =
=
= iB*(2 pi a)*a /sqrt(a2+d2)
=> F = (2 pi a2iB)/sqrt(a2+d2)