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Rohit Agarwal's Avatar
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7 Sep 2009 11:04:58 IST
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if a charged particle goes unaccelerated in a region containing electric n magnetic fields, a >
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if a charged particle goes unaccelerated in a region containing electric n magnetic fields,a > E must be perpendicular to Bb > v must be perpendicular to Ec > v must be perpendicular to B]d > e must be equal to vBdo explain ur answer...THNX


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Yagyadutt Mishra's Avatar

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7 Sep 2009 11:22:43 IST
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Ok.....i m not sure i can give the correct option here...but it sure i will give u the correct method....because option are somewhat confusing....ny how..

1.The thing is that particle is going unaccelerated.Means there should not be existence of only electric feild..because If only E is prsesnt then ofcourse particle will be accelerated whatever be the direction E have..and force will be q.E.

2.Now in presesnce of only B particle can be move without accelerating..how?..if the velocity will be parallel or anti parallel to B....because in this case force will be 0..{ F= q.B.v.sin@...and in case v||B then @ is 0 or pi}..No other direction gives uniform motion to charge.

3.One case is also possible.....when there exist E and B both...This is very unique case..Hoe can be possible in this case? lets see.

If B is perpendicular to v then force is equal to B.q.v....This force can be balance by force of E which is equal to q.E

q.E = B.q.v

or E = B.v

One condition is also E is perpendicular to B and V.

Now check ur option....i get only last one..which is also incomplete option...u must say that E perpendicular to B and v

Rohit Agarwal's Avatar

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7 Sep 2009 11:47:29 IST
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answer is a and b...i got the answer...its by lorrentz force....just put F=0...n then E= - (V x B)...hence a and b are the right answers
~Áß???????'s Avatar

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7 Sep 2009 12:16:33 IST
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 SEE..

according to me....condition will be all 3 vectors shd be perpendicular to each other 

like , x y z axis ...

now taking question ..suppose DUE TO E ..the force acting on particle 

= qE ...in x direction positive ,,

so to balance the force force in negative dirn is provided by magnetic field force..

this is possible if B and v are perpendicular to each other and E as well ...

so all shd be perpendicular...hence a b and c are correct....

and qE = qVB ..

SO , E = VB....d is also correct

edison's Avatar

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7 Sep 2009 19:53:31 IST
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Very nicely explained by

 
~ÁßℋℐŚℋΞҜஇ

 

Rohit Agarwal's Avatar

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7 Sep 2009 21:40:50 IST
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I M REALLLY SORRY GUYS BUT THE ANSWER IS ONLY A AND B!!!a and b
Rohit Agarwal's Avatar

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7 Sep 2009 21:52:06 IST
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TTHE EXPLANATION LOOKS GOOD N COLOURFUL BUT ITS CERTAINLY NOT RIGHT!!
~Áß???????'s Avatar

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8 Sep 2009 12:10:00 IST
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 well...i got that answer only.....a and b are correct ...bt they are jst part of full answer..

i think c and d is also corrrect....u chk urself...!!

Rohit Agarwal's Avatar

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11 Sep 2009 12:48:50 IST
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no yar dis is from HCV...HCV cannot be wrong..i guess...most aanswers r correct!!!a and b are right!!!
Rohit Agarwal's Avatar

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Joined: 23 Sep 2008
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11 Sep 2009 12:49:58 IST
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answer is a and b...i got the answer...its by lorrentz force....just put F=0...n then E= - (V x B)...hence a and b are the right answers



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