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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 7 Jul 2008 23:56:09 IST
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Q. A hypothetical magnetic field existing in a region is given by B = B 0 e r where e r denotes the unit vector along the radial direction. A circular loop of radius a , carrying current , is placed with its plane || to the X - Y plane and the centre is at ( 0 , 0 , d ). Find the magnitude of the magnetic force acting on the loop.
Salute assured for detailed, repeat, detailed solution.
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it is not important where u stand, but in which direction u are moving |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 8 Jul 2008 08:19:38 IST
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I hope the figure is self explanatory :)

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Impossible To be Impossible is Impossible |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 8 Jul 2008 10:05:34 IST
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no i don't understand.
1. magnetic field along the radial direction => along the radius of the loop.
2.In that case the angle b/w B ( along the radius ) and dl is 90 degree.
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 8 Jul 2008 14:49:35 IST
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Nah, radial always doesnt mean along the radius of a circle. Don't you say force on a charge q on another charge q is radial?
So I guess now you understand, I also had a doubt in this.
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Let us learn to dream, gentlemen, and then perhaps we shall learn the truth.
- August Kekule |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 9 Jul 2008 00:13:57 IST
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I still don't understand.
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it is not important where u stand, but in which direction u are moving |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 9 Jul 2008 01:37:49 IST
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why this dia ? why not other type of diagram ?
Do we hav to do all of hcv magnetics ?
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 10 Aug 2008 17:49:32 IST
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It is simple !!!!!!!!!!!!
I am giving u the formal approach to solve the problem
see , dF = I dl * B
Now B = B er
& dl = dl e ( Where er ,e & e are the unit vectors in the spherical coordinate )
Taking the cross product , we have dF = I B e dl
( because e * er = e )
Now e = cos cos i + cos sin j - sin k
& dl = a d
Integrating dF , ( limiting from 0 to 2 ) noting that i & j component cancels ,
We have F = 2 BIa sin k
Now sin = a / sqrt ( a^2 + d^2 )
so Force = F = 2 BI a^2 / sqrt ( a^2 + d^2 ) k
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 10 Aug 2008 17:51:58 IST
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But I should warn you that this is not a physical problem , only a mathematical exercise .
Because , according to Maxwell's eqn we must have
div B = 0 everywhere in space for all time !!
But for B = B er we have div B = 2 B / r which is non zero everywhere .
So nowhere in our universe you can find such a magnetic - field distribution
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 10 Aug 2008 18:00:36 IST
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oh richard !
u r a genius.
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