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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 21 Feb 2008 10:05:02 IST
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a particle is moving parallel to the x axis.........its velocity is v and mas is m........what is the angular momentum about the origin.......answer is zero....please tell me how it came to be zero........
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21 Feb 2008 10:17:52 IST
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IT cannot be zero.
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Let us learn to dream, gentlemen, and then perhaps we shall learn the truth.
- August Kekule |
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21 Feb 2008 12:02:39 IST
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conjurer, it can be zero. But really the question should have been more clear. Let the initial postion position of the particle be . Then,  The angular momentum about origin is zero only if the particle started it's motion on the 'x' axis, i.e when b = 0.
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Guide to latex:
http://www.goiit.com/posts/list/community-shelf-a-guide-to-latex-48056.htm
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21 Feb 2008 12:09:34 IST
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konichiwa,
its given that the motion is not started on the x axis so conjurer is correct
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Impossible To be Impossible is Impossible |
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21 Feb 2008 12:40:49 IST
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:-) well i think we are going to get nowhere on this..a very debatable statement..anyway,i stand to my argument. it is given that the particle moves parrallel to the x axis. does that mean it does NOT move ON the x axis? In other words is a line parallel to itself? it is.
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Guide to latex:
http://www.goiit.com/posts/list/community-shelf-a-guide-to-latex-48056.htm
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21 Feb 2008 13:02:12 IST
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well u may be right there
because parallel lines are defined as those which have no point in common or all points in common
so a line is parallel to itself according to the latter part of definition.
but still the question that has been asked about the ang momentum about origin doesn't seem to ask for a condition when ang momentum would be 0.
it asks what the angular momentum would be?
and the answer 0 doesnot satisfy all categories rather it satisfies none but one category
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Impossible To be Impossible is Impossible |
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21 Feb 2008 13:14:50 IST
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| Quote from anchitsaini: | but still the question that has been asked about the ang momentum about origin doesn't seem to ask for a condition when ang momentum would be 0.
it asks what the angular momentum would be?
and the answer 0 doesnot satisfy all categories rather it satisfies none but one category | Isnt that what I said? I just wished to give a complete answer. I mean to say the angular momentum about origin CAN be zero. Never said it was always.
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Guide to latex:
http://www.goiit.com/posts/list/community-shelf-a-guide-to-latex-48056.htm
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21 Feb 2008 13:17:07 IST
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ok got ur point
let us end it in good spirit!!
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Impossible To be Impossible is Impossible |
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21 Feb 2008 13:18:02 IST
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 allright....
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Guide to latex:
http://www.goiit.com/posts/list/community-shelf-a-guide-to-latex-48056.htm
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21 Feb 2008 17:19:14 IST
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Question is wrong i believe. Perhaps the particle is moving on the x axis?
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Will nip in at times to solve problems :)
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21 Feb 2008 17:21:06 IST
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most probably
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Impossible To be Impossible is Impossible |
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21 Feb 2008 17:49:02 IST
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come on guys the ques. is correct .....it is a previous iit jee ques.
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21 Feb 2008 19:05:43 IST
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somebody please tell me the answer
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21 Feb 2008 19:42:05 IST
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hey check out the question........it can't be zero abt the origin......
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21 Feb 2008 20:28:55 IST
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