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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 30 May 2007 00:45:07 IST
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Two waves y1 = A1sin omega 1 t and y2 = A2sin omega 2 t superimpose to form a resultant wave . What is the amplitude of that resultant wave ?
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Ken
From: UNITED STATES, Green Bay, Wisconsin
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 30 May 2007 05:30:06 IST
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hey iit2007.................i didnt gt what u have written in the brackets..........................
any way method is simple............... u have to convert the second wave eq into cos by addiong a additional phas of 90 add the two wave equation. u get two expression in sin form with a constant a1,a2 in the expression.in that case divide and multiply with sqtroot(a1^2 +a2^2)
put a1 / sqtroot(a1^2 +a2^2) = coa (alpha) a2/ sqtroot(a1^2 +a2^2)= sin alpha
now it would be in the form which can be reduced again.............
thus u get the amplitude as sqtroot(a1^2 +a2^2)
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 30 May 2007 06:10:42 IST
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errrr when 2 waves of different frequencies superimpose, it doesnt make a travelling wave i think. Its like 2 SHM superimposing. When 2 SHMs of different frequencies superimpose, the resultant is not a SHM, its a PERIODIC motion but not SHM. Same here. Here, resultant wont be a normal sine travelling wave.
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 30 May 2007 20:46:16 IST
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i explained the answer...........assuming that the frequency is same....................
if the frequency is different then then it give rise to lisajous figures...............
for example if phase diff =90 then a circle will be obtained
rate me plz...............if u plz
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 20 Jun 2007 01:13:12 IST
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y u ppl r makin a mess of things
Wen 2 waves of diff amp but same frequency superimpose res is interfernce
As in this prob the phase diff is zero hence amp is A1+ A2
@rohil : refer page 1 module 7 physics
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devesh
La parada de tettas |
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