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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 20 Oct 2007 12:45:02 IST
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d distance travelled by a body is directly proportional to time...is there any external fofce acting on the body
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20 Oct 2007 12:51:06 IST
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yes.... s = ut + 1/2at^2 s = t(u + 1/2at) so if s is directly proportional to t then term ( u + 1/2at) must be constant i.e it should not depend on other quantities ..but u + 1/2at depends ..........so answer is yes...external force is acting...
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20 Oct 2007 13:45:28 IST
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what r u saying man,,,see like this s=kt,,t is any constant...it will be a constant u can`t say it is not.. so graph is like under..... hence there is a uniform motion with no macceleration,,,now if there is no acceleration..no force is there...(1st law corrollary) .....
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20 Oct 2007 14:03:17 IST
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there is no external force acting
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20 Oct 2007 15:02:09 IST
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s=kt,
v=k,
a=0,therefore Fnet=ma=o,
no external fofce is acting on the body .
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20 Oct 2007 15:09:48 IST
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External forces may or may not be actng, but their net must be zero. This is because, if for constant velocity net acceleration must be zero and hence net force on the body must be zero... Do rate me...Hope This helps...
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20 Oct 2007 15:39:12 IST
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Distance  Time Distance = K * (Time) => Speed = constant If no external force is acting , speed will be be const because velocity would be const. If external force is acting such that the particle is moving in a circle (like in the case of magnetic force), the speed is still const. So , the answer is External force may or maynot be present
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20 Oct 2007 16:36:10 IST
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No unbalanced external force is acting upon it.
If distance is proportional to time
means Distance = speed x time
( if it was distance proportional to square of time, then it would have been s = at^2 / 2)
Hence speed is constant.and no unbalanced external force is acting upon the body
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