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Ask iit jee aieee pet cbse icse state board experts Expert Question: Mechanics question
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magiclko (4200)

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A prticle of mass m is moving along a semi-circular path of radius R in a garvity-free space, the particle moves under the influence of a variable force acting on the particle and always directed towards point B . If the speed of the particle is V(tangential to the sem-circular path), then find the speed of particle at position P


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Prakriteesh (153)

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Hey, magicklo. I have found the answer to be V/2. If it is correct plz notify me, and then I will post the solution by this evening.

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avdesh100 (228)

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hey,how u solved it

will make it BIG!
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001sri (129)

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since its a consevative force so we can define a potential for it.
and the final kinetic energy is calculated using increase in P E
work done by normal rxn =0.

but i doubt the ans of prakritesh may b wrong as we dont have been given any other thing.

keep it up!!!!!!!!!11
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Prakriteesh (153)

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 Hey magicklo, last time I did a mistake and the correct answer is 4V according to me.this is a nice problem and thanks for posting it. The tip to solve it that one should not get stuck with the word 'variable force'. Even if the force is variable yet it must provide the necessary centripetal force mw2r in the radial direction otherwise the particle won't execute circular motion.
  Now, let us first derive the general method for solving the problem for any angle.  (diagram below) At a particular instant angle POA = . So, angle BPO = /2. So, if F be the value of the force at that instant then resolve it in radial and tangential direction.
               Thus, F cos /2 = mw2r
          So, tangential comp. F sin/2 = mw2r tan/2
     So, tangential acceleration  at =w2r tan /2
  So, angular acceleration   =w2 tan/2
    Note that here the angular acceleration will not remain constant as w and  are not constant. This situation can be compared to (but not same as) the varying acceleration of S.H.M.
            Now,  = w2 tan /2
             So, dw/dt = w2tan/2
         dw/d . d/dt = w2tan/2
          w dw/d = w2tan/2
              dw/d = w tan/2
     So,   1/w dw = tan /2 d
  Integrating
             
         1/w dw =  tan /2 d
 
       Now let w at A be wa and at P be wp. In this problem  at A = 0degree and  at P = 120 degree.
 
          So,    [ wa][wp ] 1/w dw = [0 ][120 ]  tan /2 d
 
           Or,  log wp - log wa = [ (log sec/2)/(1/2)]0120
 
           or,  log wp/wa = 2 log (sec60/sec0)
          or,     log wp/wa = log (sec60/sec0)2
 So, taking antilog
                   wp/wa  =   (sec60/sec0)2 = (2/1)2 = 4
       So,            wp = 4wa
                      rwp = 4 rwa
                        Vp = 4 V
 
           This is the answer.
                        
        
 
                 
 


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magiclko (4200)

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the answer is 4v, but dnt u think, its quite a long solutiob for an objective question.....!!

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vish0001 (493)

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i think the answer appears long due to the theory he has written and magicklo sorry if i m interfering, please have a look at ur nudge book, pleasssse !!



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Prakriteesh (153)

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 Ya magicklo, I had given a detailed answer so that everyone could understand without difficulty. But next time you face this type of problem for any angle, you can directly use the formula  log wp/wa = 2 log (sec p/sec a).

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