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Mechanics
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8 Oct 2007 23:09:29 IST
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consider the figure shown and observe carefully the forces shown....
for the body of mass M ....
Mg - T = M.2a _________(1)
and as the pulley B is massless .... So force acting on it must be zero....
Such that tension in the string connecting B and 2M is T+T = 2T
So 2T = 2M.a _______(2)
Comparing the two equations ....
Mg - T = 2T
ot T = Mg/3
So (1) => Mg - Mg/3 = 2Ma
or a = g/3
Now accl^n of M = 2a = 2g/3
And force due to clamp on pulley = force on clamp due to pulley... = resultant of the two tensions in the string going over the pulley A
(the string connected to the clamp has no effect due to the pulley on the clamp...but itself pulls the clamp..... and so is not to be counted)
So reqd. force due to pulley on clamp =
( T2 + T2 )
( T2 + T2 ) =
2T2
2T2 = T
2
2 = Mg/3 .
2 ( 450 with horizontal as the two forces are equal in magnitude and are mutually perpendicular )
2 ( 450 with horizontal as the two forces are equal in magnitude and are mutually perpendicular )9 Oct 2007 10:37:36 IST
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FOr 28
its easy
T - 1*10 = A (1)
and Tension of the lower sytem is half of the first......Since the pulley is massless T" = T/2
20 -T/2 = 2A -2a .............(2)
30 - T/2 = 3A + 3a............ (3)
Three equations 3 variables solve these..............
u will get A = 10- 5a
Then plug it in other equation
u will get
A = 190/29 .........which is same as 19g/29 upwards
therefore for m1 and m2
17g/29 downwards
21g/29 downwards
Then use s = ut + 1/2 at square
where u is 0 s is 20/100 m solve u will get
20/100 =1/2*9.8* t^2
T=.2459
which can be aprooximated to .25 sec.......
RAte me buddy..................
its easy
T - 1*10 = A (1)
and Tension of the lower sytem is half of the first......Since the pulley is massless T" = T/2
20 -T/2 = 2A -2a .............(2)
30 - T/2 = 3A + 3a............ (3)
Three equations 3 variables solve these..............
u will get A = 10- 5a
Then plug it in other equation
u will get
A = 190/29 .........which is same as 19g/29 upwards
therefore for m1 and m2
17g/29 downwards
21g/29 downwards
Then use s = ut + 1/2 at square
where u is 0 s is 20/100 m solve u will get
20/100 =1/2*9.8* t^2
T=.2459
which can be aprooximated to .25 sec.......
RAte me buddy..................
10 Oct 2007 16:56:31 IST
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MR. RAJEEV MASSEY .... you think goiit is an HC Verma solver.........??? a special site where hcv sums are available for free that you give a dozen of questions at a time and people are there to waste time for you ....!!!!!
you are at first violating the norms of this site by giving dozens of questions...... then again you dont give questions....( only numbers )
and when people solve for you..... you show your idiotism by not giving a a single response to it......
anybody might not have any objection to it but I HAVE !!!!!!
and i dont fear boinks..... you want to give me one .... give it...
but i must express my views..!!!!
you are at first violating the norms of this site by giving dozens of questions...... then again you dont give questions....( only numbers )
and when people solve for you..... you show your idiotism by not giving a a single response to it......
anybody might not have any objection to it but I HAVE !!!!!!
and i dont fear boinks..... you want to give me one .... give it...
but i must express my views..!!!!














The Hanging mass is "M" and hence the pulling force is "Mg"
The mass in motion is (m+M+M')
Therefore the acceleration will be:
F= M"a
Where M" = Total Mass
F = (m+M+M')a
Mg = (m+M+M')a
a = Mg/(m+M+M')
The mass "m" will not slide over M' if :
aCos@ = gSin@
Therefore,
MgCos@/(m+M+M') = gSin@
From solving above we get :
M = (m+M')/(Cot@-1)
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