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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 8 Jun 2008 21:15:25 IST
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A uniform disc of radius R is placed on a rough horizontal surface and given a linear horizontal velocity v0 and angular velocity 0 as shown.The disc comes to rest after moving through some distance to right,it follows that:
a) v0=w0R
b)2v0=w0R
c)2v0=3w0R
d)3v0=2w0R
looking for both the answer as well as the method...
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 8 Jun 2008 22:28:11 IST
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even i have this doubt.How do you do this? some one please reply!
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 8 Jun 2008 22:38:01 IST
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I think the ans is (b)2v0=w0R.Let us denote angular acc. by k and coeff. of friction by p.
Let it come to rest after time t,then w0=kt and v0=pgt.
Using torque eqn.,f.R=I.k=(1/2)mR2k pmg=mRk/2 k=2pg/R.
Substituting this,Rw0=2pgt=2v0.
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MAKING A MISTAKE IS HUMAN BUT REPEATING IT IS IDIOTIC. |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 22 Jun 2008 14:06:30 IST
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ok thanks...
but how would you solve this sum using energy conservation?
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http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=0JurgT5GEnc |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 22 Jun 2008 15:38:31 IST
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srry But I dont agree with u frnd-"Energy conservation is not applicable in presence of dissipiative forces-here its friction"
bt Angular momentum abt the bottomost pt is conserved:bcoz torque of mg,N,frictn is zero(they all pass thr the contact pt)
Initial angular momentum=Iw-mvoR=3/2mR2wo-mvoR
Final angular momentum=0(as the disc stops)
equating the two we get
2v0=3w0R (c) Ans
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 22 Jun 2008 15:44:13 IST
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ok but i had asked this ques to my sir and he told me to use energy conservation even i had thouught that because friction is acting energy wont be conserved but im very confused.
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http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=0JurgT5GEnc |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 23 Jun 2008 14:47:25 IST
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SE I CAN SOLVE IT BY ENERGY METHOD WORK DONE BY EXTERNAL FORCE =CHANGE IN MECHANICHAL ENERGY FINAL ENERGY=0 INITIAL KINETIC ENRGY =1/2MV^2+I/2IW^2 CHANGE=1/2MV^2+I/2IW^2 UMGS=1/2MV^2+I/2IW^2FROM THIS WE CAN FIND OUT THE DISTANCE TRAVELLED CAN BE FOUND OUT FROM THIS U CAN EQUATE THE VELOCITIES SIMPLE PLS RATE ME IFU FIND ME USEFUL !!!!!!CHEERS!!!!!!!!
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 24 Jun 2008 00:06:14 IST
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yes the energy can be conserved as in pure rolling the wok done by friction is zero provide it should perform pure rolling and as the surface is rough i think it would do pure rolling and so the ans can be found by energy conservation.
correct me if i m wrong.
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 24 Jun 2008 22:43:33 IST
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yeah but over here the body is not pure rolling..
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http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=0JurgT5GEnc |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 25 Jun 2008 13:44:01 IST
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how can u tell that it is not purely rolling
plz explain`
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 25 Jun 2008 13:46:19 IST
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@animal
its no where given that frictn is sufficient to prevent slipping //the disc is performing pure rolling
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 25 Jun 2008 13:49:30 IST
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yes @akku i got it now it can be solved by ang momentum conservation abt the lowest pt as u havehave done
thanx.
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