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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 21 Nov 2007 17:44:43 IST
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dear friends
my textbook says:
"
when a fluid is flowing through an object, then the force applied by one layer of the liquid on the other layer is perpendicular to the surface.
That is why there is no friction between the adjacent layers of the liquid."
PLEASE EXPLAIN
please help me fast..!!
stuck..!!
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21 Nov 2007 17:46:37 IST
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i think two layers opposes each other...i.e why there is concept of viscosity....
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padhna likhna chad de mitra , nakal te rakhi aas , chak chaddar te so ja bhagta , Rabb karega tennu paas.....
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Shubham
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21 Nov 2007 17:52:03 IST
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friends this is in case of ideal liquid..!!
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21 Nov 2007 17:52:25 IST
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i am talking about ideal liquid
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21 Nov 2007 17:56:02 IST
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okokok.... i got it......
then its easy....
see 1 layer exerts only 1 force on the second layer i.e. its weight.....now let us assume that there is friction b/w them .. now as it will act in hor. direction & there is no balancing force in hor. dir. so our supposition was wrong.hence friction doesn't exist b/w the layers...
arrey dekho na, if friction exist then there must be sumthing dat can balance this fric. force but as there is no force in hor. dirc. so no friction...
hope u got it!!
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padhna likhna chad de mitra , nakal te rakhi aas , chak chaddar te so ja bhagta , Rabb karega tennu paas.....
PLZ NEVER EVER RATE ME FOR MY ANSWERS , IF U WANT TO COMPLIMENT ME THEN JUST BEAT UR HEAD & SAY
"YEH KIS PAGAL NE MERA QN. SOLVE KER DIYA"
I AM SERIOUS!!!!
EVEN SERIOUS ^ INFINITY
PLZZZZZZ NEVER RATE ME....HOPE U WILL UNDERSTAND....
Shubham
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21 Nov 2007 18:23:40 IST
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Friction is always parallel to the surface of the 2 bodies involved. So, no parallel force obviously means no friction.
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21 Nov 2007 18:40:42 IST
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work=f.s I think that would suffice.
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