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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 9 Feb 2008 18:43:10 IST
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Question-1- When we give a jerk(force) to a string ,there arise waves in the string ,so we can conclude that a force is necessary for a wave .But according de-Broglie every object posses a wavelength given by - h/mv,here it is not mentioned that any force is acting on it because the formula only states that the necessary condition to have wavemotion is that particle must have mass and velocity(v,m not= 0).Is there any force which is responsible for the object to move in (de-Broglie) wavemotion? If not then why if we throw a ball straight then it it will also have a wavemotion,there must some fictitious force? So my question is when a body is thrown in straight line it will move in wavemotion without presence of any force? Is this wavemotion is only on earth or it is also present in zero gravity and near black holes? Is this force acts on a body moving with a velocity comparable to that of light?
Question-2- Gravitational and electrostatic forces are centric forces(act between line joing the centre of two bodies), but why the magnetic forces act perpendicular to the magnetic field and the velocity(plz give explanation at the atomic level).I want to know that why the direction of that force obey the cross product rule,why force is not along the velocity of that body or along the direction of magnetic field or in any other direction?Is this an experimental law,because i didn't find its explanation in any textbook.
I am a student of class XII.
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 9 Feb 2008 19:10:56 IST
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q2 see in original maxwell's work there was no partial derivatives of time , only total derivative d/dt was present . Now d/dt =  /  t + v .del In that way a term' v X ' arises
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