Why inductive effect of H is assumed to be zero ?????????????

one q for u :

y we assume 1amu =1.6*10^(-27) kg

in d same way as we need sumthing ............as base so taht we may compare it widothers that's y

we take inductive effct of H as zero so dat we may derive d inductive effct of others incomparison wid it

correct me if m wrng !

For measurement of relative inductive effect, hydrogen is chosen as reference in the molecule CR3-H as standard. If, when the  hydrogen atom in this molecule is replaced by Z ( an atom or group), the electron density in the CR3 part of the molecule is less in this part than CR3-H, then Z is said to have a -I effect ( electron attracting or electron withdrawing. If the electron density in the CR3 part is greater than in CR3-H, then Z is said to have a + I effect( electron repelling or electron releasing). Thus hydrogen being taken as reference, its inductive effect is naturally assumed as zero.