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Trignometry

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1 May 2012 20:03:11 IST

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Inverse Functions

Engineering Entrance , JEE Main , JEE Advanced , Mathematics , Trigonometry

find domain of f(x) such that it is invertible.

also explain please.

then repeat this for .

Comments (2)

Sagar Saxena

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2 May 2012 00:27:36 IST

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since we know for a function to be invertable it must be one-one and onto and the function f(x) is satisfying the condition in span of /2 interval so its doamin can be taken as from [0,pi/2] or from [pi/2,pi] etc in a similar way.
and same is the case for g(x) here also it's doamain must be a span of pi/2.

Aman Raghuvanshi

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6 May 2012 13:52:20 IST

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the source of this question says that for f(x)=cos^2 x to be invertible,

-pi/2 < x < 0.

i dont know how.

By graph, i get the answer 0 < x < pi/2

But when i do the question by another method, i find that the correct answer is actually -pi/2 < x < 0.

plz explain.

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