since we know for a function to be invertable it must be one-one and onto and the function f(x) is satisfying the condition in span of /2 interval so its doamin can be taken as from [0,pi/2] or from [pi/2,pi] etc in a similar way.
and same is the case for g(x) here also it's doamain must be a span of pi/2.
the source of this question says that for f(x)=cos^2 x to be invertible,
-pi/2 < x < 0.
i dont know how.
By graph, i get the answer 0 < x < pi/2
But when i do the question by another method, i find that the correct answer is actually -pi/2 < x < 0.
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